a 22-year-old client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of fatigue, breast heaviness and extreme tenderness, and a clear vaginal discharge. what question would the nurse ask this client?

Answers

Answer 1

The question that the nurse should ask the client is 'Have you been sexually active in the past 2 months?".

What is breast heaviness?

Breast heaviness is the enlargement of the lobular gland of the breast which is as a result of increase in some hormones such as estrogen and progesterone.

An individual that is sexually active who complains of fatigue, breast heaviness, extreme tenderness, and a clear vaginal discharge would probably be a sign of increased hormone levels due to early pregnancy.

Therefore, the nurse should obtain information concerning the sexual life of the client.

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a patient is diagnosed with dementia. there has been an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (csf) volume, but no increase in intracranial pressure. what type of hydrocephalus is this patient demonstrating?

Answers

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is the type of hydrocephalus is the patient demonstrating which is caused by increased CSF volume but no increase in intracranial pressure.

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is an abnormal buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the cavities or ventricles of the brain. It occurs when the CSF is unable to pass properly through the brain and spinal cord.

As a result, the ventricles enlarge and push against the brain. Normal pressure hydrocephalus can afflict people of any age, although it most usually affects the elderly. A subarachnoid hemorrhage, a concussion, an infection, a tumor, or issues following surgery might all cause it.

However, many people get NPH even without any of these risk factors. In certain cases, the underlying cause of the condition is unknown.

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a client with bladder cancer is receiving cisplatin and vincristine. the nurse plans care, knowing that which is the purpose of administering both of these medications?

Answers

When cells start making up the urinary bladder start to grow out of control is called Bladder cancer.

The bladder is a hollow organ in the lower pelvis. Its main function is to store urine.

What is Bladder cancer?

Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC) is also known as Urothelial carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer.Other types of bladder cancer can start in the bladder, but these are not common than Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC).Most bladder starts in the innermost lining of bladder.However, cancer might spread outside the bladder too.

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a nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin ethylsuccinate 50 mg/kg/day po divided in equal doses every 6 hr to a toddler who weighs 32 lb. available is erythromycin ethylsuccinate suspension 200 mg/5 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer per dose? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)

Answers

The nurse should administer 4.5 ml per dose.


What is erythromycin ethyl succinate?

A prescription drug called erythromycin ethyl succinate is used to treat the symptoms of numerous bacterial infections. You can use erythromycin ethyl succinate by itself or in combination with other drugs. The medicine Erythromycin Ethyl succinate is a member of the Macrolide drug class.

Here,

According t the given data given in the question:

2.2 lb/kg  x  32 lb  =  14.54kg

50 mg/kg  x  14.54 kg  =  727.27mg

727.27 mg  /  4 (Q6H)  =  181.81 mg

200 mg/5ml  x  181.81 mg  =  4.54 mL

Therefore, the answer is 4.54 ml.

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2. What is an example of an illness or disease that is transmitted by airborne transmission?
O
O
O
O
O
O
O
HIV
O
O
O
O
Common cold
3. Transmission of infectious agents within healthcare requires a certain sequencing of elements that allows infection to occur. What is this called?
Chain of command
Chain of infection
Chain of transmission
Chain of liness
Tuberculosis
O
O
MRSA
4. Which of the following is an appropriate guideline for maintaining safety when using sharps?
Activating the safety mechanism immediately after use
Bending or removing needles before disposing of them
Emptying small sharps containers into larger containers when full
Picking up broken glass with gloved hands
5. Breaking the chain of infection is critical to stopping the spread of infectious organisms.
True
False

Answers

Answer:

2. Common Cold

3. Chain of Infection

4. Activating the safety mechanism immediately after use

5. True

a client who is homeless and diagnosed with bipolar disorder presents to the clinic for a follow-up visit and a nurse begins the assessment. which observation by the nurse manager warrants immediate intervention?

Answers

POSSIBLE OBSERVATIONS:

1. Having a great mood: manic or hypomanic state

2. Depression

3. Irritability

4. Impulsiveness or erratic behavior

5. Rapid or slowed speech

6. Alcohol or drug abuse

7. Trouble at work

8. Racing thoughts

9. Memory or concentration problems:

10. Severe fatigue

11. Insomnia and sleep problems

observation by the nurse manager warrants immediate intervention

are severe fatigue, Rapid or slowed speech

Explanation:

WHAT IS BIPOLAR DISORDER?

Manic depression, formerly known as bipolar disorder, is a mental health illness that results in sharp mood swings, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania), and lows (depression).

HUDDEN CLIENT:

According to numerous studies, one-third of those who are homeless suffer from a severe mental disease, most frequently schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. Homeless women and those who experience chronic homelessness are more likely to suffer from mental illness.

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a client has been diagnosed with a heart attack and has been placed on beta-blockers to reduce the workload on the heart, as well as a statin drug and a low-fat diet to lower cholesterol. which level of prevention of disease would these therapies be classified?

Answers

A client has been diagnosed with a heart attack and has been placed on beta-blockers to reduce the workload on the heart, as well as a statin drug and a low-fat diet to lower cholesterol. These therapies would be classified as Primary and tertiary level of prevention of disease.

What is a Heart attack?

When the blood supply to the heart is significantly constrained or blocked, a heart attack takes place.

The clogging of the heart’s (coronary) arteries is frequently caused by the accumulation of fat, cholesterol, and other substances. The fatty, cholesterol-rich growths are called plaques.

Atherosclerosis is the name for the accumulation of plaque. Rarely, a plaque may rupture, resulting in the formation of a clot and the obstruction of blood flow.

A section of the heart muscle might be harmed or even destroyed by a decrease in blood flow. Myocardial infarction is another name for a heart attack.

Treatment must be received right away if someone is to survive a heart attack. If you think you’re experiencing a heart attack, call 911 or get medical help right away.

Symptoms of a heart attack might vary. Some people experience mild symptoms. Others exhibit severe symptoms. Some people don’t exhibit any symptoms.

What are beta blockers?

The primary uses of the beta blocker pharmacological class, which is frequently abbreviated as “blockers,” are the treatment of irregular heartbeats and the prevention of subsequent heart attacks.

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As a veterinarian, if you suspect an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, whom should you contact?

Answers

Answer:

Possibly, an expert vet, or a person who can heal and knows what to do in that situation.

If a veterinarian suspects an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, they should contact the appropriate fish health authority or agency.

If a veterinarian suspects an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, they should contact the appropriate fish health authority or agency. This could be the state or federal fish and wildlife agency, or the state or federal department of agriculture.

These organizations have the expertise and resources to investigate and address the outbreak, and may work in partnership with veterinarians to conduct diagnostic testing, implement disease control measures, and provide guidance on managing the outbreak.

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the nurse is admitting a client who just had a bronchoscopy. which assessment should be the nurse's priority?

Answers

The assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is Swallow reflex

Swallow reflex is a healthcare process which aids to propel swallowing food bolus from the oral cavity to the esophagus without aspiration of food into the airways.

Bronchoscopy

In the healthcare management, bronchoscopy is one of the procedures or technique which is used to view the airways deep inside respiratory system.

This bronchoscopy is usually, frequently and most of the time carried out in order to diagnose health conditions within the respiratory system and for therapeutic purposes

So therefore, the assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is swallow reflex

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which measure would the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan for a multiparous client who gave birth 24 hours ago and is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy for cystitis?

Answers

Emptying the bladder in every 2 to 4 hours while awake would be a way that the nurse could anticipate the problem.

What is cystitis?

It's an infection or inflammation of the urinary tract, including the bladder, brought on by a kind of bacterium known as Escherichia coli (E. coli). Urge to urinate, blood in urine, and burning during urination are the results of this.

A technique for the nurse to foresee the issue would be to have the patient empty their bladder every two to four hours while they are awake.

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to therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?

Answers

The nurse must identify personal feelings about child abusers first.

Intervention in child maltreatment includes, for instance, the investigation of child abuse reports by state child protection agencies, clinical treatment of physical and psychological injuries, family counseling, self-help services, the provision of goods and services like homemaker or respite care, legal action against the perpetrator, and removing the child or the offender from the home.

Some people consider these therapy efforts to be a sort of tertiary prevention since they frequently aim to avoid more instances of child abuse as well as to lessen the detrimental effects of those events on children and their families.

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Question correction:

To therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?

1 Develop a trusting relationship with the child.

2 Identify personal feelings about child abusers.

3 Recognize the emotional needs of the parents.

4 Gather information about the child's home environment

unfractionated heparin tid dosing regimen is associated with a lower rate of pulmonary embolism when compared to bid dosing in patients undergoing craniotomy

Answers

When compared to bid dosage, unfractionated heparin TID dosing to patients having craniotomies is associated with a lower rate of pulmonary embolism.

Explanation:

Background:

The post-operative history of individuals who have had a craniotomy may be complicated by pulmonary embolism (PE). Unfractionated heparin (UFH) prophylaxis has been demonstrated to lower VTE rates; however, twice-daily (BID) and three-times-daily (TID) UFH dose regimens have not been contrasted in neurosurgical procedures.

Methods:

For 159 patients at Northwestern, a retrospective evaluation of their medical records was done. While controlling for age at surgery, sex, prior VTE history, craniotomy for tumor resection, surgery duration, length of stay, reoperation, infections, and IDH/MGMT mutations, general linear regression models were used to predict rates of DVT, PE, and reoperation due to bleeding from UFH dosing regimens.

Results:

In comparison to getting UFH BID, receiving UFH TID was significantly related with a decreased risk of PE ( = -0.121, P = 0.044; TID rate = 0%, BID rate = 10.6%). When compared to UFH BID, UFH TID also shown a tendency for reduced DVT rates ( = -0.0893, P = 0.295; TID rate = 18.5%, BID rate = 21.2%). When compared to UFH BID, UFH TID revealed no discernible difference in the rate of reoperation for bleeding ( = -0.00623, P = 0.725; TID rate = 0%, BID rate = 0.8%).

Conclusions:

Unfractionated heparin administered to individuals undergoing craniotomies on a daily basis as opposed to a weekly one is linked to a lower risk of pulmonary embolism.

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a client is scheduled for a nerve-sparing prostatectomy. the emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery. which nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client?

Answers

If the emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer. The nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is: b. Fear.

What is nerve-sparing prostatectomy?

Nerve-sparing prostatectomy can be defined as a surgery carried out by a surgeon in which a patient prostate is removed and this procedure is done so as to prevent prostate cancer which can be deadly.

Fear occur when a person is anxious, scared or frightening about known and unknown issues or situation.

Based on the scenario the nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is fear based on the fact that the patient is scared or afraid to carryout the surgery  which is why the client does not want to talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery.

Therefore the nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is: Fear.

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The complete question is:

A client is scheduled for a nerve-sparing prostatectomy. The emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client?

A) Sexual Dysfunction

B) Fear

C) Knowledge Deficit

D) Ineffective Coping

he nurse is taking care of a 10-year-old child admitted to the unit for a flare-up of sickle cell disease. the child is alert, oriented, cognitively a 10-year-old, and able to verbalize the pain. which pediatric pain assessment scale(s) is appropriate to use with this child?

Answers

Scale of Wong-Baker FACES

This scale may be used since the youngster is verbalizing their distress and has mature cognitive functioning.

Connie Baker and Donna Wong created the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale to measure pain. A succession of faces are depicted on the scale, ranging from a smiling face at zero, or "no harm," to a sobbing face at ten, or "hurts like the greatest agony conceivable."Analog visual scale (VAS)
Based on his or her age and cognitive capacity, this scale is suitable for the youngster. Although children as young as 4 years old can use this scale, it is normally reserved for those aged 7 and over.Numbering system
Based on his or her age and cognitive capacity, this scale is suitable for the youngster. Children as young as 5 years old can utilize the numerical scale.

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the nurse is initiating a therapeutic relationship with a client. which information would the nurse most likely include when explaining the purpose of this relationship?

Answers

The nurse is likely to include facilitating a positive change while explaining the purpose of the therapeutic relationship.

A therapeutic relationship, or therapeutic alliance, refers to the close and consistent association that exists between at least two individuals: a health care professional and a person in therapy.

The purpose of a therapeutic relationship is to assist the individual in therapy to change his or her life for the better. Such a relationship is essential, as it is oftentimes the first setting in which the person receiving treatment shares intimate thoughts, beliefs, and emotions regarding the issue(s) in question.

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the nurse is assessing a newborn by auscultating the heart and lungs. which natural phenomenon will the nurse explain to the parents is happening in the cardiovascular system?

Answers

The nurse assesses a newborn by auscultating the heart and lungs. The nurse will explain to the parents that Pressure changes occurred and result in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.

What is Ductus Arteriosus?

The patent ductus arteriosus is a persistent opening between the two major blood vessels that emerge from the heart (PDA). After delivery, the ductus arteriosus, a typical opening in a baby’s circulatory system while in the womb, frequently shuts.

If it remains open, it is referred to as a patent ductus arteriosus. Small patent ductus arteriosus typically causes no problems and may never need to be treated.

A large patent ductus arteriosus, which permits blood with low oxygen levels to flow in the wrong way, can weaken the heart muscle, cause heart failure, and other problems if left untreated.

Cardiovascular catheterization, medication, monitoring, or surgery to close a patent ductus arteriosus are all possible treatments.

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the nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community. which aspect is this addressing? context education resources time pressure

Answers

Clinical judgment is the ability to recognize a problem through evaluation, to pay attention to the patient (patient contact), and to act in the patient's best interests.

What is a clinical judgment model?

A methodology for the precise assessment of clinical judgment and decision-making in the context of a high-stakes, standardized test.

Practice, experience, information, and ongoing critical analysis all contribute to the development of clinical judgment.

It encompasses all aspect of medicine, including diagnosis, treatment, communication, and decision-making.

Therefore, A clinical judgment model involves the gradual accumulation of knowledge and skills.

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a student nurse is assessing socialization skills in 3-year-old and 4-year-old children. which similar characteristics may be seen in the children of the two different ages?

Answers

A nursing student is evaluating the socializing abilities of 3- and 4-year-old kids. What common traits can you observe in kids of the two distinct ages?

What is socializing skills?

Interpersonal or communication skills are other names for social skills or abilities. These are the skills that people have and employ when interacting and communicating with one another. The method of communication may be non-verbal or verbal (spoken or written) (using body language, gestures and facial expressions).

Both are afraid. Children as young as 3 and as old as 4 are terrified. Children as young as 3 years old can play in both parallel and associative ways, whereas children as young as 4 years old can only play associatively. Children who are 4 years old can freely share family stories with others; 3-year-olds cannot. Children who are 5 years old are more motivated to please people than those who are 3 or 4 years old.

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which behavior by a preschool child indicates to the nurse that the child is in the appropriate stage of growth and development?

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The behaviour related to creative play study, indicate to the nurse that the child is in appropriate stage of growth and development.

Preschool can inspire a lot of creativity. Drama, music, dance, art, and craft are all excellent learning and development tools during these formative years.

Creative study have following benefits to the prescholars.

cultivate your creativity and imaginationcreate confidence and improve in expressing emotionsexchange ideas, opinions, or experiences.enhance hand-eye coordination, and motor skills in the body. Practice making decisions, solving problems, and exercising critical thought.

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which behaviors would the nurse expect the client to do during the working phase of a therapeutic relationship

Answers

The nurse would expect the client would do insight and incorporate alternative behaviors during the working phase of a therapeutic relationship.

What does therapeutic relationship mean?

The relationship between a healthcare provider and a client or patient is referred to as a therapeutic relationship. It is the way a therapist and a client intend to interact and bring about positive change in the client.

There is a distinct beginning and finish to the therapeutic relationship. It advances via the aforementioned four stages: commitment, process, change, and termination.

What is a good therapeutic relationship?

Mutual regard, trust, and concern. general agreement over the therapy's objectives and tasks. Cooperative decision-making. Participation of both parties in "the job" of the therapy. the capability of discussing "here-and-now" elements of one's relationships with others.

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what are some self disclosures to that a counselor would not disclose to a client

Answers

Answer:

when practitioners discuss their own personal problems and hardships with their clients with no clinical rationale or purpose

Explanation:

to get the best results when working out, it is a good idea to evaluate your starting point and to track your progress from there. what are some basic assessments and measurements that you can take to get started on your fitness routine? these can include exercises as well as body measurements. << read less

Answers

"You should weigh and measure yourself." is one if the basic assessments and measurements that you can take to get started on your fitness routine.

It's critical to measure your progress while beginning an exercise program so that you can determine when your goal has been reached. If your aim is to lose weight, you should weigh and measure yourself when you first begin so that you may contrast your initial results with your final ones.

If your major objectives are strength and endurance, it would be beneficial to compare your results from various fitness tests before you begin your training program and again once you have finished it to see how far you have come. By doing this, you will always be able to identify your objectives and decide where to start.

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a nurse is providing teaching to a client who's being discharged after delivering a hydatidiform mole. which expected outcome takes highest priority for this client?

Answers

Answer:

The expected outcome that takes highest priority for this client is that they understand the importance of follow-up appointments.

Explanation:

We know this is the answer because, although a mole can be dangerous, it is not life-threatening and so the client's understanding of the importance of follow-up appointments is more important than anything else.

operative report preoperative diagnosis:prolapsed vitreous in anterior chamber with corneal edema postoperative diagnosis:same operation performed:anterior vitrectomy the patient is a 72-year-old woman who approximately 10 months ago underwent cataract surgery with a yag laser capsulotomy, developed corneal edema and required a corneal transplant. the patient has done well. over the last few weeks, she developed posterior vitreous detachment with vitreous prolapse to the opening in the posterior capsule with vitreous into the anterior chamber with corneal touch and adhesion to the graft host junction and early corneal edema. the patient is admitted for anterior vitrectomy. procedure: the patient was prepped and draped in the usual manner after first undergoing retrobulbar anesthetic. a lid speculum was inserted. an incision was made at approximately the 10 o’clock meridian 3 mm in length, 2 mm posterior to the limbus, and grooved forward into clear cornea with a 3.2 mm anterior chamber. an anterior vitrectomy was carried out, placing a visco-elastic substance in the anterior chamber to maintain it. a sinskey hook was used to sweep vitreous away from the corneal wound and this was removed with the disposable vitrectomy instrument. the patient’s pupil is noted to be round. there was no vitreous to the wound. the wound self-sealed without aqueous leak. cautery was used to close the conjunctiva. subconjunctival decadron and gentamicin was given. the patient tolerated the procedure well and was discharged to the recovery room in good condition. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?

Answers

The surgical diagnostic or diagnoses given to the patient prior to the surgical procedure are documented in the surgical operation note pre-operative diagnosis and serve as the justification for the surgery. According to the surgeon, the preoperative diagnosis is the one that will be verified during operation.

What is Preoperative diagnosis ?

The period of time between the decision to have surgery and the start of the surgical procedure is known as the preoperative phase.

What is conjunctiva ?

infection or inflammation of the inner eyelid and the outer ocular membrane.

Pink eye, also known as conjunctivitis, is an inflammation or irritation of the conjunctiva, which covers the white portion of the eye. Allergies or a bacterial or viral illness may be to blame. Contact with eye secretions from an infected person can spread conjunctivitis, which can be quite contagious.

Redness, itchiness, and eye tears are symptoms. Additionally, it may cause crusting or discharge around the eyes.If you have conjunctivitis, you should cease wearing contact lenses. Although it frequently gets well on its own, therapy might hasten the healing process. Antihistamines are effective in the treatment of allergic conjunctivitis. Antibiotic eye drops can be used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis.

What is Retrobulbar anesthetic ?

A retrobulbar block is a regional anesthetic nerve block that is administered in the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. The retrobulbar block is created by injecting local anesthetic into this region.

This method involves injecting local anesthetic into the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. By immobilizing cranial nerves II, III, and VI, this injection causes akinesia of the extraocular muscles and stops movement of the glob.

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a 19-year-old woman presents with worsening headaches. she reports a multi-year history of episodic throbbing headaches. they have intensified, and she now misses classes and work periodically as a result. the headaches occur about 4-6 times per month recently, up from 1-2 per month when she first started experiencing them. her headaches last 2-3 days and are accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and light sensitivity. after the headache resolves, she denies any residual symptoms. she denies neurologic symptoms, such as vision or taste changes, gait disturbances, and memory loss. she has tried multiple over-the-counter pain medications without relief. her mother and maternal aunt experienced similar headaches. she reports some increased stressors and less sleep since recently starting college.

Answers

A 19-year-old woman presents with worsening headaches. she reports a multi-year history of episodic throbbing headaches. Treatment approach should include providing treatment for acute headache, some prophylactic treatments, such as administration of topiramate.

what is  throbbing headaches ?

A throbbing headache is a common medical condition where blood rushes to the affected area of the head and Throbbing results from the dilation of the blood vessels from the increased blood flow.

Throbbing is a pulsing sensation which can come and go quickly in a frequent manner, some headaches can be a serious which causes stroke, a brain tumor, or meningitis, so that important to consult with a doctor if you have regular or painful headaches

Some important headaches are Occipital neuralgia which is a condition results from damaged nerves from the spinal cord to the scalp,  a sharp, aching, or throbbing pain that starts at the base of the head and moves toward the scalp.

Throbbing headache can also arise at top of head where migraines can cause nausea, vomiting, or increased sensitivity to light or sound.

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the nurse is caring for an adult client who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. what actions should the nurse encourage the client to perform? select all that apply.

Answers

The nurse should encourage the client who has undergone chemotherapy  to:

Use a lip lubricantUse dental floss every 24 hoursRinse the mouth with normal saline.What is chemotherapy?

Chemotherapy is a form of cancer treatment which uses one or more ant-cancer drugs to treat cancer.

Chemotherapy is used to treat cancer.

Due to the high doses of drugs treated at the cancer cells, chemotherapy usually have the effect of lowering the patient's immunity making them susceptible to diseases.

Therefore some side effects may occur as in the case of the patient who developed mild oral yeast.

In order to clear the mild oral yeast infection and to prevent further growth of the yeast cells, the nurse may recommend the following remedies:

Use a lip lubricantUse dental floss every 24 hoursRinse the mouth with normal saline.

In conclusion, chemotherapy is used in the treatment of cancers.

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Note that the complete question is:

You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply.

A) Use a lip lubricant.

B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush.

C) Use dental floss every 24 hours.

D) Rinse the mouth with normal saline.

E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.

for a pediatric patient with a methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa) infection, which discharge instruction should you provide for the patient and caregivers?

Answers

Answer:

Do not touch the wound - very easily spread by contact

Explanation:

See https://www.uptodate.com/contents/methicillin-resistant-staphylococcus-aureus-mrsa-beyond-the-basics

Don’t touch the wound, not matter what.

a nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 500 mg im to a client. the nurse reconstitutes a 500 mg vial of cefazolin powder to obtain a final concentration of cefazolin 330 mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)

Answers

The nurse should administer 1.51ml(rounding off 2 ml)

In many different areas of the body, cefazolin is used to treat bacterial infections. In order to avoid infections, this medication is also administered before to several types of surgery. Cefazolin is a member of the cephalosporin antibiotics drug class. It functions by eradicating germs or stopping their development.By attaching to penicillin-binding proteins, cefazolin prevents the creation of the cell wall, which halts the production of peptidoglycans. Bacterial proteins called penicillin-binding proteins aid in catalyzing the last steps of peptidoglycan production, which is necessary to preserve the cell wall.It is therapeutically efficient against infections brought on by gram-positive staphylococci and streptococci species.

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Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Question 4 options: a) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases c) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care d) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

Answers

The criteria required for becoming licensed and employed as an EMT is: (b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.

EMT is the abbreviation for Emergency Medical Technician. Their first priority is to transport the patient to the nearest hospital at the earliest while providing care on the way. They are also trained with certain skills and techniques to deal with emergency and life-threatening situations.

Communicable diseases are those that can easily spread from one person to another. This can happen by physical contact with the patient, contact with the patient's personal belongings, through infected surfaces or inhaling the infected droplets. Therefore, an EMT needs to be immunized against such diseases for his as well as the patient's safety.

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he nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. which would be an expected finding for this client?

Answers

Compression of the cord is an expected finding for the client.

When the feet or the bottom of the baby are within the uterus, the baby is said to be breech. During a vaginal delivery, a baby should be positioned such that the head comes out first. By 36 weeks, most breech infants will flip to face forward. While some breech infants can be delivered vaginally, a C-section is often advised.

After the membranes have ruptured, the cord may prolapse, and the pressure of the presenting portion may compress the chord, causing fetal hypoxia. A breech presentation does not increase the risk of bleeding or preeclampsia over a cephalic presentation.

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Question correction:

A nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. For what complication should the

nurse monitor the client?

Hemorrhagic shockIncreased blood pressureCompression of the cordMeconium in the amniotic fluid

Jo is training a new administrative medical assistant. Which of the following will Jo mention as a procedure that is to be followed both while closing and opening the​ office? Question content area bottom Part 1 A. tracking appointment status B. explaining payment policies to patients C. counting the cash box by two staff members in each​ other's presence D. signing in and registering new patients

Answers

The  procedure that Jo will mention to the new administrative medical assistant that is to be followed both while closing and opening the​ office is:

signing in and registering new patients; option D.

Who is an administrative medical assistant?

A medical administrative assistant is responsible for providing clerical support to doctors, nurses, and other health professionals by performing various tasks such as scheduling appointments, filing documents, preparing reports, taking care of billing, and answering phones.

The various duties of an administrative medical assistant include

Checking patients in at the front desk.Answering the phone.Scheduling appointments.Interviewing patients for case histories and key information prior to appointments.Compiling medical records and charts.Processing insurance payments

Jo will mention to the new administrative medical assistant that a procedure to follow while closing and opening the office is signing in and registering new patients.

In conclusion, an administrative medical assistant is responsible for managing the front desk operations of a healthcare facility to ensure its smooth operations.

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