Early intervention will delay or prevent dementia at a critical stage known as vascular cognitive impairment, no dementia (VCIND).
According to the pathophysiology of VCIND, brain networks can be disrupted by a single lesion, and the aberrant Functional Connectivity (FC) of these networks causes abnormalities in the relevant neurobehavioral domains. In this study, we investigated the idea that the effects of physical activity (PA) on neurobehavioral function were mediated through disturbed striatal and anterior cingulate cortical networks.FC was positively correlated with greater average step counts/average distance, a better IADL score, and negatively correlated with longer TMB time to completion (seconds) in the brain networks anchored by caudal ACC seeds, whereas FC of subgenual ACC seed was negatively correlated with the same parameters.Early stage of dementia is called as VCIND.
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When an individual is exposed to extremely cold air the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that more blood will be brought closer to the outside surface of the skin. True or false?.
Answer: true
Explanation:
the healthcare practitioner is caring for a patient with a problem with the respiratory zone of the respiratory system. the healthcare practitioner understands which structure is part of the respiratory zone?
The network of organs and tissues that aids in breathing is known as the respiratory system. It consists of your blood vessels, lungs, and airways. The respiratory system also includes the muscles that propel your lungs. Together, these components help the body circulate oxygen and eliminate waste gases like carbon dioxide.
What is Respiratory System ?In both animals and plants, the respiratory system is a biological system made up of particular organs and structures that are employed for gas exchange. Depending on the size of the organism, its habitat of residence, and its evolutionary background, the anatomy and physiology that cause this vary widely.
The network of organs and tissues that aids in breathing is known as the respiratory system. It consists of your blood vessels, lungs, and airways. The respiratory system also includes the muscles that propel your lungs. Together, these components help the body circulate oxygen and eliminate waste gases like carbon dioxide.
What is Respiratory zone ?The respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli are all parts of the respiratory zone, which corresponds to the lung parenchyma. The conducting tract (airways) and the respiratory zone are the two functional and structural divisions of the lower respiratory system, which is a hierarchical system.
Air enters and exits the lungs through the conducting zone, which extends from the nose to the tiniest bronchioles. The respiratory bronchioles and alveoli are part of the respiratory zone, which also regulates the flow of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the circulation.
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the nurse is giving medications to a patient in heart failure. the iv route is chosen instead of the im route. what patient function does the nurse recognize as the most influential when deciding to use the iv route of drug administration?
The nurse is giving medications to a patient in heart failure. the iv route is chosen instead of the im route. the nurse recognises diminished circulation of the patient as the most influential when deciding to use the iv route of drug administration.
Who are the nurses?A nurse is a person who care for the people.
They are trained to give care to people who are sick and injured.
They have their graduation successful and also fulfill all the needs of the hospital and qualified all the steps to become a nurse without any backlogs.
They work with the doctors and other health care workers to make patients well and to keep them fit and healthy.
Nurses also help with end-of-life needs.
Nursing is a noble profession but the training for nurse is different.
What is heart failure?it is one type of chronic condition in which the heart muscle doesn't work properly and unable to pump the required blood which a body need to functioning properly.
The causes of heart failure includes coronary artery disease, heart attack, cardiomyopathy.
Symptoms of heart failure includes irregular heart beat , dizziness, fluid and water retention, congested lungs.
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you have been performing multiple-provider cpr and using an aed on an adult patient in cardiac arrest. the patient is now showing signs of return of spontaneous circulation (rosc). which action(s) would the team perform?
You have been performing multiple-provider CPR and using an AED on an adult patient in cardiac arrest and there are signs of return of spontaneous circulation which means the team should perform the following below:
1. Stop CPR.
2. Check for breathing and pulse.
3. Monitor the patient until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
What is CPR?This is referred to as cardiopulmonary resuscitation and is a lifesaving technique which is done to individuals who have cardiac arrest in which the heart stops beating.
It comprises of chest compression and artificial ventilation and is also used with AED. When this is done to individuals and they show some signs of return of spontaneous circulation, the CPR should be stopped immediately.
Checks for breathing and pulse should be done so as to ascertain the condition of the individual. Close monitoring should also be done before until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a medication into a client by the intradermal route after applying gloves and cleaning the site with an antiseptic swab. in what order should the nurse take the steps to administer the medication? (move steps into box 1- 4 priority)
Following the application of gloves and cleansing of the area with an antiseptic wipe, the nurse should perform the following procedures for intradermal medicine administration:
1. You should double-check the dosage, drug name, and patient name.
2. You should use your non-dominant hand to pull the skin taut.
3. The needle should be held at a 5 to 15 degree angle.
4. Should you pierce the skin with the needle,
5. Watch for bleb or weal development.
6. Take away the needle.
7. Throw away the needle,
8. Hands-washing,
9. and record the location of the injection.
The dermis, which is located immediately below the epidermis, is the target of intradermal injections (ID). Due to the lack of muscle tissue and the limited number of blood vessels, intradermal (ID) injections have the longest absorption times of all parenteral methods.
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which medications can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state? a. beta-blockers b. diuretics c. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. thyroid hormones
The medications which can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is referred to as beta-blockers and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?This is a serious complication which is related to diabetes mellitus and it involves the blood glucose level being high for an extended period of time thereby leading to certain symptoms.
Beta blockers is a medication which is capable of increasing the blood glucose level in the body and it also reduces the effect of oral hypoglycemic medications.
Thus is therefore the reason why beta blockers was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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a nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
Preventing bone injury nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client.
When caring for a client with multiple myeloma, the nurse should focus on relieving pain, preventing bone injury and infection, and maintaining hydration. Monitoring respiratory status and balancing rest and activity are appropriate interventions for any client. To prevent such complications as pyelonephritis and renal calculi, the nurse should keep the client well hydrated — not restrict his fluid intake.
myeloma, is a type of bone marrow cancer. Bone marrow is the spongy tissue at the centre of some bones that produces the body's blood cells. It's called multiple myeloma as the cancer often affects several areas of the body, such as the spine, skull, pelvis and ribs.
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a client who is in the first trimester is being discharged after a week of hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum. she is to be maintained at home with rehydration infusion therapy. what is the priority nursing activity for the home health nurse?
After a week of hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum the priority nursing activity for the home health nurse is monitoring the client for signs of electrolyte imbalances.
What is hyperemesis gravidarum ?Terrible morning sickness and vomiting while pregnant. Only in rare cases does morning sickness reach the level of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Severe nausea and feeling lightheaded or faint upon standing are symptoms. Additionally, it may result in frequent vomiting, which can induce dehydration.
Hospitalization and therapy with IV fluids and anti-nausea drugs may be necessary for this disease.
What is the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?It is unknown what specifically causes nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. However, it is thought to be brought on by a hormone known as human chorionic gonadotropin, which is rising quickly in the blood (HCG).
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Lactase deficiency is more common in asian, native american, mediterranean and some african populations than it is among people with northern or western european ancestry. How would you explain why this is so?.
Lactase deficiency is more common in Asian, Native American, Mediterranean, and African populations because of their inability to digest milk after infancy.
All mammals feed on their mother's milk during infancy. As they mature, they lose the ability to digest milk because, after infancy, they stop producing the enzyme lactase, required to digest the milk. The only mammal that can consume milk throughout life is the human.
Lactase deficiency is more common in Asian, Native American, Mediterranean, and African populations. This is because the ancestors of these populations lived in very cold or hot climatic conditions where they couldn't support dairy herding. They, therefore, could adapt themselves to lactose digestion.
On the other hand, the ancestors of northern and western Europeans relied on dairy products as an important part of their food supply. They often lived in conditions where other food sources were scarce but they could herd domestic animals for dairy products. This helped them to adapt to the condition and retained the ability to digest milk by producing the enzyme throughout life.
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a client experiencing a manic phase of bipolar disorder sustained cuts on the body from falling through a store window. the nurse is preparing to start an intravenous needle insertion. how should the nurse explain the procedure to the client?
The nurse should explain the procedure in clear and simple terms to the client.
Bipolar disorder, formerly called manic depression, is a mental health condition that causes extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression).
When you become depressed, you may feel sad or hopeless and lose interest or pleasure in most activities. you may feel euphoric, full of energy, or unusually irritable. These mood swings can affect sleep, energy, activity, judgment, behavior, and the ability to think clearly.
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the nurse is reviewing discharge instructions and follow up with a client. the client expresses concern over the cost of follow up
The nurse should tell them about the community resources and their numbers along with the client's discharge instructions.
What are discharge instructions?
A patient's care transition is said to become fragile after release from the hospital. The course of a patient's recovery is significantly impacted by its effective implementation. Effective communication of discharge instructions for patients is the most powerful weapon in a clinician's toolkit for promoting patient recovery.
At this moment, the nurse presupposes that the patient would be thrilled to go home and be extremely satisfied. The patient, however, is unprepared since she is unaware that she is leaving the hospital.
Because she does not know how she will go home, may not feel medically prepared to do so, and is unsure of how to take care of herself after leaving the safety of the hospital, she feels uneasy and uncomfortable.
Therefore, community plans for follow-up should be included in the discharge plan.
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The role of a prescription medication is to activate the cells that it binds to. Which best describes how the drug works in the body?
A.The drug is a prodrug.
B. The drug is an antagonist.
C. The drug is an agonist.
D. The drug is a blocker.
A drug that binds with the specific cell receptors on the cells, activates the cells. Such drugs work as agonist. Thus, option C is correct.
What is the mechanism of drug action?The main role of drugs is to produce a considerate effect in the body against any pathogen or injury. A drug works by carrying out a specific biochemical reaction in the body.
Drugs can either activate the cell receptors or they suppress it. Drugs can also act like blockers on the cells. The drugs are prescribed specific to the diseases as well as it is taken for a specific duration.
Thus, drugs are important to treat specific illness in the body.
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Depressants and stimulants are categories of prescription drugs which are highly regulated because they have a strong potential for abuse and addiction. True or false?.
during a health assessment interview, a nurse learns that the client has a family history of colorectal cancer. what information should the nurse give the client about reducing the risk for colorectal cancer? select all that apply.
A nurse discovers that a client has a family history of colorectal cancer during a health assessment session. The nurse should educate the patient on ways to lower their risk of developing colorectal cancer, such as engaging in at least 30 minutes of regular exercise each day, obtaining an annual FOBT, and consuming enough folic acid in their diet.
Increase your intake of fruits, veggies, and whole grains since they provide vital vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that the body desperately needs. Give up drinking and smoking.
Regularly engage in physical activity, such as yoga. Maintain a healthy weight and an active lifestyle. As people age, their chance of colorectal cancer rises. Although young adults and teens can get colorectal cancer, those over the age of 50 account for the majority of cases. For males with colon cancer, the average age of diagnosis is 68, whereas for women it is 72.
Overall, getting frequent colorectal cancer screenings, starting at age 45, is the most efficient strategy to lower your chance of developing the disease. Precancerous polyps (abnormal growths) in the colon or rectum are where almost all colorectal malignancies start. Increasing both the quantity and the intensity of your exercise may help lower your risk.
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community care center has 200 beds. it has an average length of stay of years. most of the patients are elderly, but there are some younger patients with serious chronic illnesses. community care center is most likely a(n) facility.
The community care center is most likely a long term care facility. The correct option is c.
What is long term care facility?Long-term care facilities aids the patients who are not being able to stay independently with either of the medical and personal support services.
Long-term care is renowned to a range of services designed to meet a person's health or any personal care requirements for a long period of time.
When person cannot initiate or complete daily activities on their own, these services provide them live as independently as well as safely as possible.
Thus, the correct option is c.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
a. Acute care
b. Rehabilitation
c. Long-term care
d. Behavioral health
a resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor. your response to this should be .
A resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor therefore your response should be to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter and is denoted as option A.
Who is a Physician?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who has the required degree and is involved in the non-surgical treatment of individuals thereby ensuring that their health is restored.
Every individual has the right to choose his physician which is why an individual who wants a change should be assisted by contacting social worker or RN so that new arrangements can be made.
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The options are:
A. to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter
B. to gently tell the resident that the doctor has been assigned to him and he cannot change physicians without a legal procedure
C. to acknowledge the resident's concerns and suggest a different medical provider
D. to reassure the resident that his doctor is qualified and capable and encourage the resident to respect the doctor
what are some questions the nurse should ask herself before accepting this assignment? include your rationale.
Do you possess the ability to care for patients before the nurse accepts you? Do you have experience with the assigned patient types? Do you have the necessary cross-training to care for these patients if this is a "float assignment"? Exists a "buddy system" among employees who are familiar with the unit? Such inquiries ought to be made.
Nurses should actively promote patient safety, which requires them to be skilled in patient-centered care delivery and other issues that might degrade the standard and effectiveness of patient care (Browne et al., 2015).
In the ATI Case Study, the nurse should think about two key issues that will help advance the patient's general well-being. What are the key tasks and expectations for the assignment? should be the first question you ask. The purpose of this inquiry is to assist her better understanding the patient's requirements and to provide a baseline for assessing her capacity to deliver safe, high-quality treatment that is patient-centered. "Do I have the skill set to offer care and safety for this patient?" is the second query. The purpose of this inquiry is to enable the nurse to make an educated decision on whether to accept or reject the assignment.
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the nurse is caring for a client who reports dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea. which assessment parameter should make the nurse suspect this client may be suffering from heat stroke?
The nurse is caring for a client who reports dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea therefore the assessment parameter which should be used to suspect the client may be suffering from heat stroke is the skin being hot and dry to the touch.
What is Heat stroke?This is referred to a life threatening condition in which the body is unable to cool down as a result of it not being able to control its temperature. This means that the sweating mechanism which is a cooling technique in the body has failed.
In this type of condition, there is dehydration of the body which is characterized by dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea. The body also feels hot and dry to touch and rehydration techniques should be adopted immediately as it could lead to death.
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during the assessment of a client, the nurse recognizes that which of the client's lifestyle practices may predispose to the development of an inguinal hernia?
The nurse recognize that client's lifestyle strenous activity practices may predispose to the development of an inguinal hernia.
When tissue, such as a portion of the intestine, pushes through a weak area in the abdominal muscles, it develops into an inguinal hernia. When you cough, lean over, or lift anything heavy, the ensuing bulge may hurt.Inguinal hernia is a form of hernia that develops in the groin and is frequent in males. It can be brought on by physically demanding sports and activities, especially weightlifting. A disease known as sports hernia, which has similar symptoms and even a similar name but is not a hernia, can also be brought on by strenuous activities.To know more about strenous activity visit:
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a multilevel analysis of u.s. hospital patient safety culture relationships with perceptions of voluntary event reporting
Multilevel analysis of U.S hospital patient safety culture relationships with perceptions of voluntary event reporting
Explanation:
Events involving patient safety present chances to enhance health care, but sadly, these incidents frequently go unreported. Even though electronic reporting systems might assist decrease some reporting barriers, hospitals may be able to raise reporting rates and boost patient safety by understanding organizational and cultural factors that affect reporting frequency.
Methods: Used gathered information from The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality Hospital Survey of Patient Safety Culture as predictors and outcome factors in a cross-sectional survey study. The data were evaluated using multilevel modeling approaches, and the dataset included medical staff working in American hospitals.
Results: The analysis included information from 967 hospitals, 7816 work areas/units, and 223,412 people. The dimension feedback concerning error accounted for the most distinctive predicted variance in the outcome frequency of events recorded, whether near miss, no harm, or potential for harm safety events were being studied.
More culture dimensions became strongly connected with voluntary reporting as the safety event's perceived severity rose.
Conclusions: Study proposes giving priority to enhancing event feedback mechanisms and communicating event-related changes in order to maximize the possibility that a patient safety event will be voluntarily reported. It might be more effective to concentrate efforts on these areas than on other types of culture reform.
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an increase in which blood which intervention would the nurse implement to relieve symptoms associated with a hypoglycemic reaction
The nurse would take the following steps to treat the symptoms of a hypoglycemia reaction:
Give 4 ounces (120 mL) of fruit juice
Explanation:
Simple carbohydrate-containing liquids immediately raise blood sugar levels because they are most easily absorbed. If the client is unconscious, a 50% dextrose solution may be administered; however, 5% dextrose does not provide enough carbs. Withholding the next insulin dose won't change the state of affairs. Protein and complex carbohydrates should be given after a simple carbohydrate since they raise blood sugar levels more slowly.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication.prior to administering the medication, the nurse uses an electronic database to gather 25information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. which ofthe following components of critical thinking is the nurse using when he reviews themedication information
A. CORRECT: By using the electronic database, the nurse takes the initiative to increase his knowledge base, which is the first component of critical thinking.
B. INCORRECT: The nurse has had no prior experience with administering this medication to this client.
C. INCORRECT: Intuition requires experience, which the nurse lacks in administering this medication to this client.
D. INCORRECT: Competence involves making judgments, but no one can make a judgment about how the nurse handles researching and administering this medication to this client until he performs those tasks.
Antihypertensive is a type of drug used to treat high blood pressure. There are many different types of antihypertensive agents, and they work in different ways to lower blood pressure. Some remove extra fluid and salt from the body. Others relax and widen the blood vessels or slow the heartbeat. Blood pressure medications (antihypertensives) are medicines that bring your blood pressure down in various ways.
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he dietary supplement health and education act of 1994 allows manufacturers to classify nutrient supplements and herbal products as rather than , reducing the testing they must undergo before marketing.
The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 permits makers to group supplement enhancements and home grown items as food rather than medications, lessening the testing they should go through prior to marketing.
What did the 1994 DSHEA do?The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 was sanctioned to restrict dietary producers and wholesalers from making false claims such as writing natural or therapeutic on supplement marks.The law likewise disallows the assembling and offer of adulterated dietary enhancements.The DSHEA means to make dietary enhancements more secure by disallowing makers and wholesalers from creating and selling mislabeled or adulterated items.The DSHEA expects that the maker of the dietary enhancement guarantees that their item meets DSHEA and FDA guidelines.Under the DSHEA, supplements with established ingredients (those that were sold in the United States before 1994) can be sold without any proof of security or adequacy.As opposed to dietary enhancements, prescription and non-prescription medicine can't be sold in the U.S. without strong proof that they are safe.Therefore the dietary enhancements like home remedies and nutrients, are not naturally more secure than prescription or non-prescription meds.Learn more about DSHEA here:
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a patient is scheduled for cryoablation for cervical cancer and tells the nurse, "i am not exactly sure what the surgeon is going to do." what is the best response by the nurse?
Liquid nitrogen or an extremely cold probe are used in cryoablation to freeze tissue and destroy cells. Rectal, prostate, and cervical cancers are treated with it. Chemosurgery involves administering drugs. A laser is used during laser surgery. The use of radiofrequency ablation involves thermal energy.
Describe surgery:Licensed to practice medicine, perform surgery, and write prescriptions for medication is a doctor of osteopathic medicine (OD).
What makes surgery so important?Surgery may be necessary for a variety of reasons, including the establishment or confirmation of a diagnosis, the removal of a growth or obstruction, the repair or realignment of tissues or organs, the implantation of devices, the rerouting of blood vessels, or the transplantation of tissues or organs. Surgery is chosen by some individuals for cosmetic purposes.
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a client with a history of right-sided heart failure lives in a long-term care facility. in the daily assessment, the nurse is required to record the level of this client’s peripheral edema. which would be the main area for examination?
The correct response is Feet and ankles.
What is the term for the ankles?The region where the foot and the leg converge is known as the ankle, the talocrural region, or the jumping bone (informally). Three joints make up the ankle the subtalar joint, the inferior tibiofibular joint, and the ankle joint proper, also known as the talocrural joint.
Where is the ankle bone located?The tibia, the larger and stronger of the two lower leg bones, makes up the inside of the ankle and is part of the real ankle joint, which is made up of three bones the outside portion of the ankle is made up of the fibula, a tiny bone in the lower leg.
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if a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as:
if a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as rationalization.
By creating comforting or self-serving but false justifications for their own or others' thoughts, actions, or feelings, rationalization is a disavowal defense mechanism that enables a person to deal with emotional conflicts or internal or external stressors. These justifications hide other motivations behind the rationalizations that are made.
By coming up with inaccurate justifications that can lessen their suffering, the defense of rationalization enables people to deal with emotional conflict or other pressures. Rationalization is a defense mechanism, an unconscious effort to avoid addressing the fundamental causes of behavior, according to Freud's standard psychoanalytic theory.
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soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. uworld
Soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. This is probably Celiac disease – malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis) and autoimmune inflammation.
What is Celiac disease?Symptoms of celiac disease include autoimmune inflammation and malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis).
It is a physiological reaction brought on by ingesting the gluten protein, which is found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Over time, the small intestine’s lining is damaged by the immune system’s reaction to consuming gluten, which can lead to health problems. In addition, it makes some nutrients more difficult to absorb (malabsorption). Demands a medical diagnosis.
As a rule, people experience diarrhea. Additional symptoms include osteoporosis, wind, bloating, and exhaustion. Low blood counts (anemia) are another. Many people don’t exhibit any symptoms.
People may experience:
Pain in the joints or the stomach.
Gastrointestinal: heartburn, indigestion, bloating, belching, diarrhoea, fatty stools, nausea, or vomiting
Body as a whole: fatigue, starvation, or bone loss
Among the problems with
• development is slow growth
• delayed puberty
• Cramping
• Itching
• lactose intolerance,
• Rashes
• weight loss are additional typical symptoms.
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a patient has returned to the office three days after having a tooth extracted. he is complaining of severe pain and swelling is present. when the dentist examines the surgical site he sees there is no blood clot in the alveolus. the patient admits to smoking and using a straw within just a few hours of the extraction. the most probable condition evident is
If a patient has returned to the office three days after having a tooth extracted. He is complaining of severe pain and swelling is present. when the dentist examines the surgical site he sees there is no blood clot in the alveolus. The patient admits to smoking and using a straw within just a few hours of the extraction. The most probable condition evident is Alveolitis.
What is Alveolitis?The inflammation of alveoli is known as alveolitis. Alveoli are the small sacs of lungs responsible for the breathing process of a human being. Some causes of alveolitis are allergic response to any irritant present in the environment which can trigger an allergic reaction. These irritants could include but are not limited to agricultural dusts, funguses, molds and reactive chemicals.
Dental alveolitis is a local and reversible infection that occurs after the extraction of tooth.
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a nurse is teaching new parents about keeping follow-up appointments and calling their health care provider if they notice signs of illness in their newborn. the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the parents identify which signs as needing to be reported? select all that apply.
5 signs your baby is healthy and developing well is
Change diapers 8 to 10 times a day and continuous weight gain.The baby is quiet and attentive, at least some time of day.The baby calms down by listening to music.Eye contact and giggles for attention.Sleep longer and the crying will subside.How to know if something is wrong with the newborn?Weight loss, breastfeeding less, peeing little are just some of these symptoms, see others. Weight loss can be a sign that there are health problems with the baby. It is normal for a baby to lose 10-15% of weight after birth.
Whit this information we can conclude that You can see your baby moving their arms and legs disconnected. Slowly your baby will learn how to control her movements. Look into your baby's eyes and smile in response to their smile and keep looking at your baby's face
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what influences patient-therapist interactions in musculoskeletal physical therapy? qualitative systematic review and meta-synthesis
In musculoskeletal physical therapy, patient-therapist interactions are thought to be influenced by a variety of interpersonal, clinical, and organizational factors.
How does physical therapy work?One of the allied health professions is physical therapy, also referred to as physiotherapy. It is given by physical therapists who, through physical examination, work to promote, preserve, or restore health.
What kind of physical therapy is an example of?To relieve muscle pain or spasms, try massage, heat or cold therapy, warm water therapy, or ultrasound rehabilitation to assist with learning to utilize an artificial limb. Practice using assistive devices to help you move or maintain balance, such as a cane or walker.
What are the three different types of physical therapy?Physical therapy in orthopedics.Physiotherapy for children.Pulmonary and Cardiovascular Rehabilitation.To know more about Physical Therapy visit?
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