Incretin based drugs and risk of cholangiocarcinoma among patients with type 2 diabetes indicates that
when compared to other second- or third-line anti-diabetic drugs, the use of DPP-4 inhibitors, and possibly GLP-1 receptor agonists, may be associated with a greater risk of cholangiocarcinoma in people with type 2 diabetes.
What is Cholangiocarcinoma?The tiny tubes (bile ducts) that carry the digestive fluid bile develop with cholangiocarcinoma, a specific type of cancer. Bile ducts in the liver connect the small intestine and gallbladder.
Cholangiocarcinoma, often known as bile duct cancer, typically affects adults over the age of 50, while it can occur at any age.
The Biochemistry behind it.Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors (DPP4Is) are two anti-diabetic drugs that are often administered (GLP1 RAs). They may, however, increase the risk of cholangiocarcinoma, according to some evidence (CCA). This study was the first observational study to examine the possibility that type 2 diabetics using DPP4Is and GLP1 RAs have a higher risk of CCA.
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when planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (cp), what is important for the nurse to consider?
When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
What is cerebral palsy?Cerebral palsy is a group of conditions that are characterized by the fact that the individual is unable to maintain movement and balance of his/her own body.
In conclusion, When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP), it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
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a nurse is teaching new parents about keeping follow-up appointments and calling their health care provider if they notice signs of illness in their newborn. the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the parents identify which signs as needing to be reported? select all that apply.
5 signs your baby is healthy and developing well is
Change diapers 8 to 10 times a day and continuous weight gain.The baby is quiet and attentive, at least some time of day.The baby calms down by listening to music.Eye contact and giggles for attention.Sleep longer and the crying will subside.How to know if something is wrong with the newborn?Weight loss, breastfeeding less, peeing little are just some of these symptoms, see others. Weight loss can be a sign that there are health problems with the baby. It is normal for a baby to lose 10-15% of weight after birth.
Whit this information we can conclude that You can see your baby moving their arms and legs disconnected. Slowly your baby will learn how to control her movements. Look into your baby's eyes and smile in response to their smile and keep looking at your baby's face
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a patient has returned to the office three days after having a tooth extracted. he is complaining of severe pain and swelling is present. when the dentist examines the surgical site he sees there is no blood clot in the alveolus. the patient admits to smoking and using a straw within just a few hours of the extraction. the most probable condition evident is
If a patient has returned to the office three days after having a tooth extracted. He is complaining of severe pain and swelling is present. when the dentist examines the surgical site he sees there is no blood clot in the alveolus. The patient admits to smoking and using a straw within just a few hours of the extraction. The most probable condition evident is Alveolitis.
What is Alveolitis?The inflammation of alveoli is known as alveolitis. Alveoli are the small sacs of lungs responsible for the breathing process of a human being. Some causes of alveolitis are allergic response to any irritant present in the environment which can trigger an allergic reaction. These irritants could include but are not limited to agricultural dusts, funguses, molds and reactive chemicals.
Dental alveolitis is a local and reversible infection that occurs after the extraction of tooth.
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while assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. what is indicated by this finding? select all that apply.
The finding indicates that the client is an (2) older adult, has (4) history of smoking, and has a (5) chronic lung disease.
Anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, measured from front to back, is less than the width of the chest measured from side to side (transverse diameter) No obvious abnormalities, such as a barrel chest, kyphosis, or scoliosis, should be present on the chest.
A barrel-shaped chest is indicated by the 1:1 ratio of the anteroposterior diameter to the transverse diameter of the chest. This is a defining trait of an elderly smoker with chronic lung disease. The lumbar curvature increases with lordosis.
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Question correction:
While assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. What is indicated by this finding? Select all that apply.
Client has lordosisClient is an older adultClient has osteoporosisClient has a history of smokingClient has chronic lung diseasea nurse performs an apgar assessment on a newborn at 1 minute with a score of 7 and at 5 minutes with a score of 10. what action should the nurse take?
A nurse performs an Apgar assessment on a newborn at 1 minute with a score of 7 and at 5 minutes with a score of 10.
What is an Apgar score?An Apgar score is measured at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. Scoring may continue at 5-minute intervals if the baby is in danger and needs CPR. An Apgar score is assigned to each newborn. The APGAR score can be completed by a nurse or labor support person. The Apgar score makes it feasible to assess the newborn’s transition to extrauterine life quickly. Waiting longer than 15 minutes between assessments would be unreasonable.
How is the Exam Conducted?The Apgar test is carried out by a doctor, midwife, or nurse. The physician examines the infants:
• Breathing effort
• The heartbeat
• Muscle tone Reflexes
• Skin color
A score of 0, 1, or 2 is assigned to each category depending on the observed circumstance.
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a client with a history of right-sided heart failure lives in a long-term care facility. in the daily assessment, the nurse is required to record the level of this client’s peripheral edema. which would be the main area for examination?
The correct response is Feet and ankles.
What is the term for the ankles?The region where the foot and the leg converge is known as the ankle, the talocrural region, or the jumping bone (informally). Three joints make up the ankle the subtalar joint, the inferior tibiofibular joint, and the ankle joint proper, also known as the talocrural joint.
Where is the ankle bone located?The tibia, the larger and stronger of the two lower leg bones, makes up the inside of the ankle and is part of the real ankle joint, which is made up of three bones the outside portion of the ankle is made up of the fibula, a tiny bone in the lower leg.
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a resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor. your response to this should be .
A resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor therefore your response should be to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter and is denoted as option A.
Who is a Physician?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who has the required degree and is involved in the non-surgical treatment of individuals thereby ensuring that their health is restored.
Every individual has the right to choose his physician which is why an individual who wants a change should be assisted by contacting social worker or RN so that new arrangements can be made.
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The options are:
A. to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter
B. to gently tell the resident that the doctor has been assigned to him and he cannot change physicians without a legal procedure
C. to acknowledge the resident's concerns and suggest a different medical provider
D. to reassure the resident that his doctor is qualified and capable and encourage the resident to respect the doctor
a nurse is preparing to administer a medication into a client by the intradermal route after applying gloves and cleaning the site with an antiseptic swab. in what order should the nurse take the steps to administer the medication? (move steps into box 1- 4 priority)
Following the application of gloves and cleansing of the area with an antiseptic wipe, the nurse should perform the following procedures for intradermal medicine administration:
1. You should double-check the dosage, drug name, and patient name.
2. You should use your non-dominant hand to pull the skin taut.
3. The needle should be held at a 5 to 15 degree angle.
4. Should you pierce the skin with the needle,
5. Watch for bleb or weal development.
6. Take away the needle.
7. Throw away the needle,
8. Hands-washing,
9. and record the location of the injection.
The dermis, which is located immediately below the epidermis, is the target of intradermal injections (ID). Due to the lack of muscle tissue and the limited number of blood vessels, intradermal (ID) injections have the longest absorption times of all parenteral methods.
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a nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. what are the nurse's priority assessments of the child? select all that apply
A nurse in the pediatric clinic taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema prioritizes whether the child wears cotton clothing and tolerance to new food assessments of the child.
Children's eczema, a common allergy symptom, frequently connects to meals and clothing. Cotton clothing is a sign that the parents are aware of their child's allergy and are trying to lessen it. The ability to tolerate new foods indicates that a toddler has outgrown some food sensitivities. Eczema does not develop due to a lack of appetite. Eczema is a sign of allergies. However, it is not communicable.
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the pediatric emergency room nurse recognizes that parents are often anxious about the treatment and prognosis of their child. which supportive statements would the nurse use when communicating with these parents? select all that apply.
Supportive statements such as "We understand that you are anxious.", "We will give frequent updates.", "We really want to provide your child with the best care possible.", and "If you have any concerns, please let us know." the nurse should use when communicating with those parents.
The medical staff members that spend the most time with patients and their families while they are in the hospital are nurses. Nurses are in charge of delivering care; doctors may treat. They give crucial emotional assistance in addition to medical care.
Nurses serve as hand-holders, cheerleaders, and fitness trainers. They are responsible for providing comfort to patients and assisting them through emotional difficulties. From the very first day to the very last, day and night, they are with their patients.
By empathizing with suffering patients, reassuring anxious patients, and inspiring hope in all of them, they provide emotional support for their patients.
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Question correction:
The pediatric emergency room nurse recognizes that parents are often anxious about the treatment and prognosis of their child. Which supportive statements would the nurse use when communicating with these parents? Select all that apply.
1. "We deal with situations like this all the time."
2. "We understand that you are anxious."
3. "We will give frequent updates."
4. "We really want to provide your child with the best care possible."
5. "If you have any concerns, please let us know."
which subjective question(s) by the nurse assist in identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes? (select all that apply.)
Which subjective question(s) by the nurse assist in identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes? (Select all that apply.)
SPICES• S—sleep disorders
• P—Problems with eating or feeding
• I—Incontinence
• C—Confusion
• E—Evidence of falls
• S—Skin breakdown
It is well known that society as a whole is living longer as a result of better healthcare and living conditions.
Although it is a blessing to be able to survive into old age, there are some problems that the elderly encounter that we should all be more aware of.
Until we begin to age or see a loved one struggle, we frequently don’t pay attention to the needs of our ageing population.
But we can do more as a society to raise their standard of living. This article discusses the most pressing problems that older people face today, as well as how we can support them and provide them the chance to age with dignity.
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a patient is scheduled for cryoablation for cervical cancer and tells the nurse, "i am not exactly sure what the surgeon is going to do." what is the best response by the nurse?
Liquid nitrogen or an extremely cold probe are used in cryoablation to freeze tissue and destroy cells. Rectal, prostate, and cervical cancers are treated with it. Chemosurgery involves administering drugs. A laser is used during laser surgery. The use of radiofrequency ablation involves thermal energy.
Describe surgery:Licensed to practice medicine, perform surgery, and write prescriptions for medication is a doctor of osteopathic medicine (OD).
What makes surgery so important?Surgery may be necessary for a variety of reasons, including the establishment or confirmation of a diagnosis, the removal of a growth or obstruction, the repair or realignment of tissues or organs, the implantation of devices, the rerouting of blood vessels, or the transplantation of tissues or organs. Surgery is chosen by some individuals for cosmetic purposes.
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association of first primary cancer with risk of subsequent primary cancer among survivors of adult-onset cancers in the united states
The number of cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise, although there are few thorough studies on the likelihood that survivors of adult-onset cancers would get successive primary cancers (SPCs).
standardized incidence ratio (SIR) and standardized mortality ratio (SMR) of SPCs per 10,000 person-years in comparison to those anticipated in the general population.Several primary cancer types were significantly related with increased risk of acquiring and dying from an SPC among adult-onset cancer survivors in the United States when compared to the general population. Significant parts of the overall SPC incidence and death across all survivors were attributable to cancers linked to smoking or obesity, underscoring the significance of continuous surveillance and initiatives to stop new cancers among survivors.Cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise.
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an emergency department nurse understands that a 110-lb (50-kg) recent stroke victim will receive at least the minimum dose of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa). what minimum dose will the client receive?
A stroke is a cerebrovascular event brought on by a disruption in the blood supply. A patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
What is a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator?A recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa) is the medication used for a person suffering from a stroke. It is a protein and prevents the formation of blood clots in the circulatory or another organ system.
It is found on the endothelial cells of the blood vessels and converts the plasminogen to plasmin protein to break the blood particle accumulation. A 50 kg person suffering from a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) must be administered 45 mg of t-pa.
Therefore, the patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
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community care center has 200 beds. it has an average length of stay of years. most of the patients are elderly, but there are some younger patients with serious chronic illnesses. community care center is most likely a(n) facility.
The community care center is most likely a long term care facility. The correct option is c.
What is long term care facility?Long-term care facilities aids the patients who are not being able to stay independently with either of the medical and personal support services.
Long-term care is renowned to a range of services designed to meet a person's health or any personal care requirements for a long period of time.
When person cannot initiate or complete daily activities on their own, these services provide them live as independently as well as safely as possible.
Thus, the correct option is c.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
a. Acute care
b. Rehabilitation
c. Long-term care
d. Behavioral health
soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. uworld
Soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. This is probably Celiac disease – malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis) and autoimmune inflammation.
What is Celiac disease?Symptoms of celiac disease include autoimmune inflammation and malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis).
It is a physiological reaction brought on by ingesting the gluten protein, which is found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Over time, the small intestine’s lining is damaged by the immune system’s reaction to consuming gluten, which can lead to health problems. In addition, it makes some nutrients more difficult to absorb (malabsorption). Demands a medical diagnosis.
As a rule, people experience diarrhea. Additional symptoms include osteoporosis, wind, bloating, and exhaustion. Low blood counts (anemia) are another. Many people don’t exhibit any symptoms.
People may experience:
Pain in the joints or the stomach.
Gastrointestinal: heartburn, indigestion, bloating, belching, diarrhoea, fatty stools, nausea, or vomiting
Body as a whole: fatigue, starvation, or bone loss
Among the problems with
• development is slow growth
• delayed puberty
• Cramping
• Itching
• lactose intolerance,
• Rashes
• weight loss are additional typical symptoms.
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the nurse is monitoring a client with hypertension who is taking propranolol. which assessment finding indicates a potential adverse complication associated with this medication?
Blurred vision and confusion are the symptoms which indicates a potential adverse complication associated with the propranolol medication.
What is Hypertension?This is referred to a type of medical condition which is characterized by the blood pressure being too high as result of different factors such as obesity etc.
One of the medications which is used to treat it is referred to as propranolol and it helps to lower it. In cases where the patient experiences blurred vision and confusion then it means a potential adverse complication associated with it and is therefore referred to as the most appropriate choice.
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if a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as:
if a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as rationalization.
By creating comforting or self-serving but false justifications for their own or others' thoughts, actions, or feelings, rationalization is a disavowal defense mechanism that enables a person to deal with emotional conflicts or internal or external stressors. These justifications hide other motivations behind the rationalizations that are made.
By coming up with inaccurate justifications that can lessen their suffering, the defense of rationalization enables people to deal with emotional conflict or other pressures. Rationalization is a defense mechanism, an unconscious effort to avoid addressing the fundamental causes of behavior, according to Freud's standard psychoanalytic theory.
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The role of a prescription medication is to activate the cells that it binds to. Which best describes how the drug works in the body?
A.The drug is a prodrug.
B. The drug is an antagonist.
C. The drug is an agonist.
D. The drug is a blocker.
A drug that binds with the specific cell receptors on the cells, activates the cells. Such drugs work as agonist. Thus, option C is correct.
What is the mechanism of drug action?The main role of drugs is to produce a considerate effect in the body against any pathogen or injury. A drug works by carrying out a specific biochemical reaction in the body.
Drugs can either activate the cell receptors or they suppress it. Drugs can also act like blockers on the cells. The drugs are prescribed specific to the diseases as well as it is taken for a specific duration.
Thus, drugs are important to treat specific illness in the body.
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a nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
Preventing bone injury nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client.
When caring for a client with multiple myeloma, the nurse should focus on relieving pain, preventing bone injury and infection, and maintaining hydration. Monitoring respiratory status and balancing rest and activity are appropriate interventions for any client. To prevent such complications as pyelonephritis and renal calculi, the nurse should keep the client well hydrated — not restrict his fluid intake.
myeloma, is a type of bone marrow cancer. Bone marrow is the spongy tissue at the centre of some bones that produces the body's blood cells. It's called multiple myeloma as the cancer often affects several areas of the body, such as the spine, skull, pelvis and ribs.
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the nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-year-old child about techniques to promote medicine adherence. what instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? select all that apply.
The instructions that nurse should include in the teaching includes choosing the proper dosage form, completing the prescribed dose. usage of calibrated spoons for measuring liquid formulations.
What is medicine adherence?
Medicine adherence often refers to whether patients continue to take a prescribed medication as well as whether they take their prescriptions as directed (for example, twice daily). Thus, adherence and persistence are the two key principles that describe medication adherence behavior.
The nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-year-old child about techniques to promote medicine adherence. The instructions which should be included by the nurse in the teaching are:
Choose the proper dosage form.Complete the prescribed dose.Use calibrated spoons for measuring liquid formulations.To know more about medicine adherence, go to URL
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Lactase deficiency is more common in asian, native american, mediterranean and some african populations than it is among people with northern or western european ancestry. How would you explain why this is so?.
Lactase deficiency is more common in Asian, Native American, Mediterranean, and African populations because of their inability to digest milk after infancy.
All mammals feed on their mother's milk during infancy. As they mature, they lose the ability to digest milk because, after infancy, they stop producing the enzyme lactase, required to digest the milk. The only mammal that can consume milk throughout life is the human.
Lactase deficiency is more common in Asian, Native American, Mediterranean, and African populations. This is because the ancestors of these populations lived in very cold or hot climatic conditions where they couldn't support dairy herding. They, therefore, could adapt themselves to lactose digestion.
On the other hand, the ancestors of northern and western Europeans relied on dairy products as an important part of their food supply. They often lived in conditions where other food sources were scarce but they could herd domestic animals for dairy products. This helped them to adapt to the condition and retained the ability to digest milk by producing the enzyme throughout life.
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an increase in which blood which intervention would the nurse implement to relieve symptoms associated with a hypoglycemic reaction
The nurse would take the following steps to treat the symptoms of a hypoglycemia reaction:
Give 4 ounces (120 mL) of fruit juice
Explanation:
Simple carbohydrate-containing liquids immediately raise blood sugar levels because they are most easily absorbed. If the client is unconscious, a 50% dextrose solution may be administered; however, 5% dextrose does not provide enough carbs. Withholding the next insulin dose won't change the state of affairs. Protein and complex carbohydrates should be given after a simple carbohydrate since they raise blood sugar levels more slowly.
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Depressants and stimulants are categories of prescription drugs which are highly regulated because they have a strong potential for abuse and addiction. True or false?.
a multilevel analysis of u.s. hospital patient safety culture relationships with perceptions of voluntary event reporting
Multilevel analysis of U.S hospital patient safety culture relationships with perceptions of voluntary event reporting
Explanation:
Events involving patient safety present chances to enhance health care, but sadly, these incidents frequently go unreported. Even though electronic reporting systems might assist decrease some reporting barriers, hospitals may be able to raise reporting rates and boost patient safety by understanding organizational and cultural factors that affect reporting frequency.
Methods: Used gathered information from The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality Hospital Survey of Patient Safety Culture as predictors and outcome factors in a cross-sectional survey study. The data were evaluated using multilevel modeling approaches, and the dataset included medical staff working in American hospitals.
Results: The analysis included information from 967 hospitals, 7816 work areas/units, and 223,412 people. The dimension feedback concerning error accounted for the most distinctive predicted variance in the outcome frequency of events recorded, whether near miss, no harm, or potential for harm safety events were being studied.
More culture dimensions became strongly connected with voluntary reporting as the safety event's perceived severity rose.
Conclusions: Study proposes giving priority to enhancing event feedback mechanisms and communicating event-related changes in order to maximize the possibility that a patient safety event will be voluntarily reported. It might be more effective to concentrate efforts on these areas than on other types of culture reform.
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what are some questions the nurse should ask herself before accepting this assignment? include your rationale.
Do you possess the ability to care for patients before the nurse accepts you? Do you have experience with the assigned patient types? Do you have the necessary cross-training to care for these patients if this is a "float assignment"? Exists a "buddy system" among employees who are familiar with the unit? Such inquiries ought to be made.
Nurses should actively promote patient safety, which requires them to be skilled in patient-centered care delivery and other issues that might degrade the standard and effectiveness of patient care (Browne et al., 2015).
In the ATI Case Study, the nurse should think about two key issues that will help advance the patient's general well-being. What are the key tasks and expectations for the assignment? should be the first question you ask. The purpose of this inquiry is to assist her better understanding the patient's requirements and to provide a baseline for assessing her capacity to deliver safe, high-quality treatment that is patient-centered. "Do I have the skill set to offer care and safety for this patient?" is the second query. The purpose of this inquiry is to enable the nurse to make an educated decision on whether to accept or reject the assignment.
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you have been performing multiple-provider cpr and using an aed on an adult patient in cardiac arrest. the patient is now showing signs of return of spontaneous circulation (rosc). which action(s) would the team perform?
You have been performing multiple-provider CPR and using an AED on an adult patient in cardiac arrest and there are signs of return of spontaneous circulation which means the team should perform the following below:
1. Stop CPR.
2. Check for breathing and pulse.
3. Monitor the patient until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
What is CPR?This is referred to as cardiopulmonary resuscitation and is a lifesaving technique which is done to individuals who have cardiac arrest in which the heart stops beating.
It comprises of chest compression and artificial ventilation and is also used with AED. When this is done to individuals and they show some signs of return of spontaneous circulation, the CPR should be stopped immediately.
Checks for breathing and pulse should be done so as to ascertain the condition of the individual. Close monitoring should also be done before until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication.prior to administering the medication, the nurse uses an electronic database to gather 25information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. which ofthe following components of critical thinking is the nurse using when he reviews themedication information
A. CORRECT: By using the electronic database, the nurse takes the initiative to increase his knowledge base, which is the first component of critical thinking.
B. INCORRECT: The nurse has had no prior experience with administering this medication to this client.
C. INCORRECT: Intuition requires experience, which the nurse lacks in administering this medication to this client.
D. INCORRECT: Competence involves making judgments, but no one can make a judgment about how the nurse handles researching and administering this medication to this client until he performs those tasks.
Antihypertensive is a type of drug used to treat high blood pressure. There are many different types of antihypertensive agents, and they work in different ways to lower blood pressure. Some remove extra fluid and salt from the body. Others relax and widen the blood vessels or slow the heartbeat. Blood pressure medications (antihypertensives) are medicines that bring your blood pressure down in various ways.
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the healthcare practitioner is caring for a patient with a problem with the respiratory zone of the respiratory system. the healthcare practitioner understands which structure is part of the respiratory zone?
The network of organs and tissues that aids in breathing is known as the respiratory system. It consists of your blood vessels, lungs, and airways. The respiratory system also includes the muscles that propel your lungs. Together, these components help the body circulate oxygen and eliminate waste gases like carbon dioxide.
What is Respiratory System ?In both animals and plants, the respiratory system is a biological system made up of particular organs and structures that are employed for gas exchange. Depending on the size of the organism, its habitat of residence, and its evolutionary background, the anatomy and physiology that cause this vary widely.
The network of organs and tissues that aids in breathing is known as the respiratory system. It consists of your blood vessels, lungs, and airways. The respiratory system also includes the muscles that propel your lungs. Together, these components help the body circulate oxygen and eliminate waste gases like carbon dioxide.
What is Respiratory zone ?The respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli are all parts of the respiratory zone, which corresponds to the lung parenchyma. The conducting tract (airways) and the respiratory zone are the two functional and structural divisions of the lower respiratory system, which is a hierarchical system.
Air enters and exits the lungs through the conducting zone, which extends from the nose to the tiniest bronchioles. The respiratory bronchioles and alveoli are part of the respiratory zone, which also regulates the flow of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the circulation.
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the nurse is reviewing discharge instructions and follow up with a client. the client expresses concern over the cost of follow up
The nurse should tell them about the community resources and their numbers along with the client's discharge instructions.
What are discharge instructions?
A patient's care transition is said to become fragile after release from the hospital. The course of a patient's recovery is significantly impacted by its effective implementation. Effective communication of discharge instructions for patients is the most powerful weapon in a clinician's toolkit for promoting patient recovery.
At this moment, the nurse presupposes that the patient would be thrilled to go home and be extremely satisfied. The patient, however, is unprepared since she is unaware that she is leaving the hospital.
Because she does not know how she will go home, may not feel medically prepared to do so, and is unsure of how to take care of herself after leaving the safety of the hospital, she feels uneasy and uncomfortable.
Therefore, community plans for follow-up should be included in the discharge plan.
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