Compression of the cord is an expected finding for the client.
When the feet or the bottom of the baby are within the uterus, the baby is said to be breech. During a vaginal delivery, a baby should be positioned such that the head comes out first. By 36 weeks, most breech infants will flip to face forward. While some breech infants can be delivered vaginally, a C-section is often advised.
After the membranes have ruptured, the cord may prolapse, and the pressure of the presenting portion may compress the chord, causing fetal hypoxia. A breech presentation does not increase the risk of bleeding or preeclampsia over a cephalic presentation.
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Question correction:
A nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. For what complication should the
nurse monitor the client?
Hemorrhagic shockIncreased blood pressureCompression of the cordMeconium in the amniotic fluidA patient expresses offense that you practice so many precautionary measures, including washing your hands and wearing protective gear. He asks why you treat patients as unclean. Your best response should be that:
A patient expresses offense that you practice so many precautionary measures and asks why you treat patients as unclean therefore the best response should be that serious communicable illnesses are spread by contact with blood borne and airborne pathogens, so precautions are necessary.
What is Precaution?This is referred to as a measure which is usually take to prevent something unpleasant or harmful from happening. This is common in the healthcare system as a result of it being the place where different illnesses are treated.
The patient may pathogens present in their body system which may be transmitted to the healthcare professionals if special care is not taken such as using personal protective equipment.
The response for the individual who asks why the patients are treated as being unclean is that serious communicable illnesses are spread by contact with blood borne and airborne pathogens, so precautions are necessary.
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during resuscitation of a critically injured client in a bomb blast, the nurse finds the client is breathing spontaneously. which nursing intervention would the nurse perform in this situation?
The correct answer for this question is Providing non-rebreather mask
A non-rebreather mask is used in spontaneously breathing clients. Providing an endotracheal tube and mechanical ventilation is beneficial in clients with significantly impaired consciousness. A client who needs ventilatory assistance during resuscitation requires a BVM ventilation with an appropriate airway adjunct and a 100 percent oxygen source.
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a client has been prescribed a combination diuretic agent. the nurse knows that the major purpose of this combination is what?
To boost the effectiveness of a medicine or lessen the drug negative effects.
What is a combination of diuretic agent?The diuretic is less likely to have negative effects when taken with other medications. It also enhances the other drug's blood pressure-lowering impact.
Other blood pressure medicines are supplemented with diuretics. For instance, if the person with high blood pressure also retains fluid, a diuretic may be administered.
By lowering the osmotic equivalent of water in the kidney tubule and tubular reabsorption of Na+. Thus, they eliminate extra salt and water from the body during the procedure.
Therefore, a client has been prescribed a combination diuretic agent.
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the nurse is preparing to administer medication to a 10-year-old who weighs 70 lb (32 kg). the prescribed single dose is 3 to 4 mg/kg per day. which dose range is appropriate for this child?
The dose range that is appropriate for this child is A. 96 to 128 mg
Who is a nurse?It should be noted that the International Council of Nurses (ICN) defines a nurse as a person who has finished a basic, generalist nursing education program and is qualified to practice nursing in his or her country.
The nurse should use the child's weight in kilograms.
The nurse would then multiply the child's weight in kilograms by 3 mg. This will be:
(32 kg × 3 mg = 96 mg) for the low end and then by 4 mg for the high end (32 lb × 4 mg = 128 mg).
Therefore, based on this, the correct option is A.
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The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a 10-year old who weighs 70 lb (32 kg). The prescribed single dose is 3 to 4 mg/kg/day. Which dose range is appropriate for this child?
a. 96 to 128 mg
b. 105 to 140 mg
c. 210 to 280 mg
d. 420 to 560 mg
the spouse of a recently deceased client states, "i just can't believe he left me. he swore he would never leave me and i feel betrayed!" using kübler-ross stages of grief, what stage does the nurse identify the client is experiencing?
The client is experiencing the stage of Anger.
Anger is a feeling that is defined by hostility toward someone or something that you believe has intentionally wronged you. Anger has its benefits. For instance, it could give you a way to vent negative feelings or motivate you to look for solutions to problems. But unchecked rage might cause problems.
One of the biggest causes of anger is the environment. Stress, financial difficulties, abuse, poor social or familial circumstances, and excessive demands on your time and energy can all lead to anger. Anger management is a psychotherapy strategy for suppressing and preventing wrath. It's been believed to be a productive way to channel anger. The causes of rage are frequently frustration or feeling hindered or stopped from doing something the individual feels is important.
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1. which personal protective equipment (ppe) will the nurse wear if there is a risk of a blood splash when caring for a patient?
The personal protective equipment (ppe) that the nurse will wear if there is a risk of a blood splash when caring for a patient include a gown, gloves, mask, and eye protection.
What is personal protective equipment?Protective clothes, helmets, gloves, face shields, goggles, facemasks, respirators, and other items that screen the wearer from harm or the spread of disease are all examples of personal protective equipment (PPE).
Personal protective equipment, or PPE, aids in preventing workplace emergencies among staff members brought on by inhalation, absorption, irritants, or other extended contact with a cleaning chemical. This actively lowers accidents, enhances employee health, and creates a more safe and secure working environment.
In this case, it's essential for the nurse to use gloves and mask to prevent the splash.
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E. P. Suffered from an illness that damaged his _____. After the brain damage, e. P. Has no problems performing well on tests of working memory, can carry on a conversation without difficulty, and can retrieve memories from before his illness. However, if you ask him at dinner what he ate for lunch he will have no idea.
EP suffered from an illness that damaged his hippocampus.
In the above statement, a man named E.P is being talked about.
EP. was an 84-year-old retired lab technician who had lost his ability to create memories due to an illness that damaged the parts of the brain responsible for converting short-term memories into long-term memories.
The hippocampus is a part of the brain that converts our perceptions into long-term memories.
If this part is damaged due to any reason, the person suffers from amnesia and loses the ability to create new memories.
Hence, E.P. suffered from an illness that damaged his hippocampus.
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an adult in the waiting room has collapsed to the floor. during your visual survey, you determine that the scene is safe, the patient appears unresponsive and they do not appear to have life-threatening bleeding. what is your next step?
Immediately I will tie his hand to stop the life-threatening bleeding then he will be picked up for the Hospital.
The two indicators of life-threatening bleeding are whether it is bright red or dark crimson in color and whether it is spurting, throbbing, or flows steadily and slowly.
Blood that is pulsing or purting typically has a vivid red color. It might endanger life. Dark crimson is typically the hue of the steady, sluggish flow of blood. It can pose a threat to your life.
What is the meaning of life-threatening bleeding ?
A retrobulbar block is a regional anesthetic nerve block that is administered in the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. The retrobulbar block is created by injecting local anesthetic into this region.
This method involves injecting local anesthetic into the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. By immobilizing cranial nerves II, III, and VI, this injection causes akinesia of the extraocular muscles and stops movement of the glob.
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the nurse is caring for a client following a thoracotomy. which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Nurse is caring for a client following a thoracotomy. Finding that requires immediate intervention by the nurse:
Chest tube drainage, 190 mL/hr
Explanation:
What is thoracotomy surgery?
Thoracotomy is a surgical procedure in which a cut is made between the rib bones to access the organs inside the chest. These organs include the heart, windpipe (trachea), lungs, and food pipe (oesophagus).
Thoracotomy findings:
Moderate amounts of colorless sputum
Chest tube drainage, 190 mL/hr
Heart rate, 112 bpm
Pain of 5 on a 1-to-10 scale
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individuals with asplenia are missing their spleen or have a spleen that doesn't function well. why is it recommended that these patients talk to their doctor about vaccines that are indicated for their health?
For those who have long-term medical issues such asplenia, vaccinations are very important.
There is a lifelong increase in the chance of developing life-threatening infections after splenectomy.Despite the extremely low danger (less than 1%), you can take the following precautions to safeguard your health:Vaccinate yourself.Record every vaccination you receive. Make sure each healthcare practitioner is aware if you have more than one. Inform your primary care physician of any illness as soon as possible.Wear a medical alert bracelet or keep a medical alert card that shows you've had your spleen removed with you at all times.Inform your primary care doctor that you don't have a spleen.Immediately inform your primary care provider of any fever or illness.Take antibiotics before and within 24 hours of any invasive medical procedure, including surgery, catheterization, and endoscopy.So, it is important for asplenic individuals to consult a doctor before getting vaccinated.
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use of an intraarticular injection directly into a joint with an anti-inflammatory medication is ideal because the drug will not be answer absorbed but will act locally to decrease inflammation.
The missing word in the blank (answer) is "systemically". The drug will not be systematically absorbed but will act locally to decrease inflammation.
To treat pain, a shot called an intra-articular injection is sent directly into a joint. The most typical medications injected into joints for this therapy are hyaluronic acid, local anesthetics, corticosteroids (steroids), and Botox.
Since many years ago, patients with knee and hip OA have been treated with intra-articular corticosteroid injections, particularly those who cannot endure the adverse effects of long-term pharmacological therapy with acetaminophen and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines.
If your pain does not go away after trying conservative measures like painkillers, oral anti-inflammatory medicines, and physical therapy, your doctor may suggest a joint injection to you.
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In the eyes of _____, society is a whole unit, made up of interrelated parts that work together.
In the eyes of ____, society is a whole unit, made up of interrelated parts that work together.
functionalists
yvonne, a 27-year-old client, is in the first trimester of an unplanned pregnancy. she acknowledges that it would be best if she were to quit smoking now that she is pregnant, but states that it would be too difficult given her 13 pack-year history and circle of friends who also smoke. she asks the nurse, "why exactly is it so important for me to quit? i know lots of smokers who have happy, healthy babies." what can the nurse tell yvonne about the potential effects of smoking in pregnancy?
Smoking's possible effects during pregnancy
Babies of smokers typically weigh a lot less than other babies.
pregnancy loss and stillbirth
Birth flaws
Birth before term
underweight at birth:
This goes beyond simply giving birth to a tiny infant. Other health issues and disabilities can result from low birth rates. The number of deaths caused by low birth weight has decreased as a result of medical advancements. However, it's still a severe condition that may lead to:
-Delay in development
-Brain damage
-Problems with hearing or eyesight
Defects at birth:
Defects at birth. Congenital cardiac abnormalities are the most typical sorts of issues.
Miscarriages:
Smoking increases the risk of both an early miscarriage and a stillbirth, according to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Trusted Source. Cigarettes contain hazardous compounds, which are frequently to blame.
Smoking-related side effects can also impede fetal growth or affect the placenta. These problems may result in a stillbirth or miscarriage as well.
Preterm birth:
premature birth of the child
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the nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community. which aspect is this addressing
The nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community which means she is addressing the reflecting aspect.
What is Clinical judgment model?This type of model is used as a template to determine or measure clinical judgment and decision in the case of a standard examination. This comprises of four steps which include:
NoticingInterpretingRespondingReflectingThe reflecting aspect involves the nurses confirming evidences through comparing different forms of techniques used for different scenario. This helps to determine if their actions have been giving rise to the expected results.
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Dr. Temple Grandin is a human psychologist who is an expert at understanding animals.
False
True
true.She is a prominent proponent for the humane treatment of livestock for slaughter and the author of more than 60 scientific papers on animal behavior.
the diagnosis of hypoglycemia is confirmed by the characteristics of whipple's triad. this triad includes all of the following except:
Whipple's triad—symptomatic hypoglycemia, plasma glucose concentration 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/l), and remission of those symptoms after raising plasma glucose concentration—is used to make a clinical diagnosis of symptomatic hypoglycemia.
Why is plasma used?Following the removal of red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and other biological components, plasma is the clear, straw-colored liquid portion of blood that is still present. It makes up around 55 percent of human blood and is made up of proteins, salts, enzymes, and water. It also contains antibodies and other proteins.
How is plasma made?When one or more electrons are ripped off an atom, a plasma is formed. An ionized atom may have a few (or perhaps one) missing electrons or it may have had all of its electrons removed, leaving only the atomic nucleus (of one or more protons and usually some neutrons).
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the nurse is administering packed red blood cell (rbc) transfusions for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (mds). the patient has had several transfusions and is likely to receive several more. what is a priority for the nurse to monitor related to the transfusions?
The priority for the nurse for a patient being administered with packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusions with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who has had several transfusions and is likely to receive several more should be to monitor the iron levels.
RBCs are the most the blood cells that transport oxygen to the whole body. These cells are devoid of nucleus in order to accommodate the maximum number of oxygen atoms possible. The red color of the cell is due to the hemoglobin pigment.
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) is the one where the blood forming cells of bone marrow become low. This can affect the number of blood cells in a person's blood severely. MDS can be of several types and for some the causes are not even known.
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rue of false? the scope of practice for a fitness professional dictates that they can prescribe specific meal plans to clients.
The scope of practice for a fitness professional dictates that they can prescribe specific meal plans to clients is false.
What are the scope of practice for a fitness professional?Pre-participation risk assessment, assessment and submaximal fitness testing, evaluation of clients' requirements and goals, design of exercise programs, and instruction of safe and efficient exercise sessions are all within the professional scope of practice.Before developing customized exercise and dietary plans for customers, fitness professionals analyze their clients' health and activity needs. As a fitness expert, you may provide exercise and nutrition seminars or instruct clients on efficient training methods.You may educate a customer effective training techniques or instruct exercise and nutrition seminars as a fitness specialist.According to the conditions of their professional license, a qualified health professional is allowed to do and engage in the activities listed in their scope of practice.
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a client is started on aripiprazole and the nurse notices the client is experiencing dry mouth and nasal congestion. what intervention does the nurse teach the client to minimize the side effects of the medication?
Drinking frequent sips of water is the intervention does the nurse teach the client to minimize the side effects of the aripiprazole medication.
Aripiprazole is a drug used to treat schizophrenia that acts on the brain. It is often referred to as an atypical antipsychotic or a second generation antipsychotic (SGA). Dopamine and serotonin are rebalanced by aripiprazole to enhance cognition, mood, and behavior.
A medication may have side effects in addition to the ones that are intended. Even though not all of these adverse effects are likely to occur, if they do, medical treatment may be required. If any of the following side effects persist, are troublesome, or if you have any questions about them, speak with your doctor:
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the nurse instructs a client to take the prescribed pravastatin at bedtime based on understanding that:
he nurse instructs a client to take the prescribed pravastatin at bedtime based on understanding that
GreatTer drug effectiveness is achieved at this time.
In order to raise "good" cholesterol (HDL) and lower "bad" cholesterol and fats (such as LDL and triglycerides) in the blood, pravastatin is used in conjunction with a healthy diet. It is a member of the class of medications known as "statins." It functions by reducing the quantity of cholesterol the liver produces. Raising "good" cholesterol while lowering "bad" cholesterol and triglycerides reduces the risk of heart disease and aids in the prevention of strokes and heart attacks. Exercise, weight loss if overweight, and quitting smoking are some lifestyle changes that may help this drug work better, in addition to eating a healthy diet (such as a low-cholesterol/low-fat diet).
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1. when preparing to assist a patient with hair care, why does the nurse first check the patient’s scalp for inflammation?
The nurse checks the patient's scalp for irritation before beginning to help with hair care to make sure that the care can be given without harming the scalp.
To prevent harm to the scalp during treatment, the nurse first looks for inflammation on the scalp. Prior to putting on the hat, massage the patient's head. Longer hair can hang outside the cap as it is just placed over the crown of the head. Under the patient's shoulders, neck, and head, place a waterproof pad. The way residents are groomed has an impact on how confident they are in the services NAs provide.
Daily brushing is necessary for healthy hair. To keep long hair from matting, it should be brushed at least once a day. To stop the scalp from being scratched, the teeth of the comb should be dull. Without injuring the patient, hair must be combed, brushed, and maintained free of knots.
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Think about the action of the muscles you have built on your maniken. Describe specific motions that you would not be able to complete if you damaged your temporalis, your orbicularis oculi or your orbicularis oris. How would this affect your ability to communicate?.
If you damage your temporalis and orbicularis oculi, it would be difficult for you to perform mouth activities like eating or speaking.
The temporalis is a muscle located on the temporal bone on the side of the skull. While the orbicularis oculi is the muscle located in the eyelids. The primary function of temporalis and orbicularis oculi include the closing of the mouth and eyelids respectively.
If the temporalis is damaged, it would be difficult to perform any mouth movements. It would become difficult for you to open and close your mouth. You may even feel difficulty in speaking. Also, your ability to chew and eat food would be affected.
If you damage your orbicularis oculi, movements like winking or blinking would be affected. We use our orbicularis oculi in our daily life to express many emotions by using our eyelids. if it would be damaged, our facial expressions and non-verbal communication skills would be affected. It also helps us to protect our eyes from dust and other unwanted particles, which would be made difficult after any damage.
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the nurse is performing an initial assessment of a patient reporting increased stomach acid related to stress. which neuroregulator will have influence over these symptoms? hinkle, janice. study guide for brunner
Norepinephrine is the neuroregulator that will have influence over the symptoms.
Any molecule that affects neurons and is often categorized as a neurohormone, neuromodulator, or neurotransmitter is referred to as a neuroregulator.
Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline) Both a neurotransmitter and a hormone, norepinephrine is sometimes referred to as noradrenaline. It is crucial to your body's "fight-or-flight" reaction. Norepinephrine is a drug that is used to elevate and maintain blood pressure in certain, urgent, short-term medical conditions.
It functions as a chemical messenger known as a neurotransmitter to assist send nerve signals from one nerve cell, muscle cell, or gland cell to another. Your adrenal glands, which are hat-shaped glands that are located on top of each kidney, release it as a hormone.
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which organization provides published guidelines that support the core principles of patient-centered quality care
The Nursing Alliance for Quality Care (NAQC) group offers published recommendations that uphold the fundamentals of high-quality, patient-centered care.
What would you say is an organization?A cooperative group of individuals is known as an organization. Examples include a company, neighborhood association, nonprofit, or union. The term "organization" can be used to describe a person, a team, a company, or the growth of anything. They are fundamentally goal-directed, built with coordinated action systems in mind, connected to the social entities around them, and goal-directed.
What are the four principles of the organization?The four major organizational concepts are division of labor, delegation of authority, the scalar principle, and unity of command. There are four fundamental principles of organization.
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client with vascular dementia (formerly known as multiinfarct dementia) has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia of the alzheimer type. what characteristics unique to vascular dementia should the nurse expect when assessing a client with this diagnosis? select all that apply.
client with vascular dementia (formerly known as multiinfarct dementia) has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia of the alzheimer type the nurse should Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes and Episodic progression of symptoms.
What ia vascular dementia ?Vascular dementia is a term that broadly refers to issues with reasoning, planning, judgment, memory, and other thought processes that are brought on by brain damage from decreased blood supply to your brain. Strokes don't necessarily result in vascular dementia, but they can lead to it if a stroke clogs an artery in the brain.
Effect :Multiple strokes that cause brain damage.
Memory loss affects older persons with vascular dementia, especially those with diabetes or obesity who are at higher risk of stroke.
Early on, the illness impairs one's ability to reason and make decisions. Later phases have an impact on memory.
Disease development can be slowed by addressing factors that affect heart health. Drugs for Alzheimer's may aid in managing cognitive symptoms.
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I understand the question you are looking for :
A client with vascular dementia (formerly known as multiinfarct dementia) has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia of the Alzheimer type. What characteristics unique to vascular dementia should the nurse expect when assessing a client with this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
1 Memory impairment
2 Failure to identify objects
3 Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
4 Episodic progression of symptoms
5 Inability to use words to communicate
What would the nurse expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a client diagnosed with pleuritis?.
When auscultating the lungs of a client diagnosed with pleuritis, the nurse would expect to hear a friction rub. The correct option is A.
What is friction rub?When the inflamed pleural surfaces rub together during breathing, a harsh, grating sound is produced.
This sound is often described as a rubbing, grating, or creaking noise and can be heard during both inspiration and expiration.
In contrast, stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during inspiration and may indicate an upper airway obstruction, whereas decreased breath sounds may indicate lung collapse or consolidation.
As a result, in a client with pleuritis, the nurse would expect to hear a friction rub rather than stridor or decreased breath sounds.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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a nurse recommends that a client come back once every 3 months in the coming year to have his cholesterol checked, to make sure he is maintaining a healthy level. which type of assessment is the nurse proposing?
Ongoing or partial is the type of assessment the nurse is proposing when the nurse recommends that a client come back once every 3 months in the coming year to have his cholesterol checked, to make sure he is maintaining a healthy level.
Partial assessment is a short version of comprehensive health assessment that includes review of at least one body system, nursing diagnosis etc.
Cholesterol is a waxy substance found in your blood. Your body needs cholesterol to build healthy cells, but high levels of cholesterol can increase your risk of heart disease. High cholesterol leads to development of fatty deposits in the blood vessel.
The normal range for cholesterol levels is less than 200 mg/dL. A few signs for high level of cholesterol are nausea, numbness, extreme fatigue, angina etc. A few exercises which help lower cholesterol levels are walking, running, cycling, and swimming.
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a woman with a long history of essential hypertension is managed throughout her pregnancy and delivers today. the hypertension has not resolved after the delivery. how is this coded?
The pregnancy and delivery of a woman with a lengthy history of essential hypertension were handled. After delivery, the hypertension has not subsided. How has this been coded?
What is hypertension?
High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is a frequent illness where the blood's long-term push against your artery walls is so great that it may eventually result in health issues including heart disease.
The case will be coded as O10.03. This is so because it's important to know whether the hypertension is because of pregnancy or a preexisting condition. Here it's a preexisting condition.
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A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through.
A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through conjugation.
What is gram-positive bacterium?Gram-positive bacteria are bacteria that classified by the color they take up in the staining method or give a positive result in the Gram stain test, which is traditionally used to classify bacteria into two broad categories according to their type of cell wall.
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a client with acute myeloid leukemia has a fever. what pathophysiological process does the nurse recognize is the cause of the client's fever?
Neutropenia is the pathophysiological process does the nurse recognize is the cause of the client's fever along with acute myeloid leukemia.
Having too few neutrophils, a particular kind of white blood cell, leads to neutropenia. While all white blood cells aid in the body's ability to fight infections, neutrophils are particularly crucial in the battle against some illnesses, particularly those brought on by bacteria.
You may be more susceptible to infections if you have neutropenia. Even common oral and digestive system bacteria can cause significant sickness when neutropenia is severe.
A reduction in neutrophils leads to fever and infection (neutropenia). Anemia, or low red blood cell counts, contributes to AML symptoms such pallor, weakness, and weariness.
Pancytopenia, a generalized drop in all blood components, is not the reason why AML patients have fever. In AML, petechiae and bruises are brought on by thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count.
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