The greatest improvements in flexibility occur as the result of stretching as a part of a warm-up for cardiorespiratory and resistance training programs.
1)False
Cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF), though influenced by a number of unchangeable variables, including gender, age, and genetics, has gained attention in recent years as an objective measure of physical activity and a tool for evaluating the connection between physical activity and health status [30,31]. As a result, correlations between CRF and indices of abdominal obesity may hint at a link between physical activity and abdominal obesity. The results of research that took precise measurements of VAT are particularly significant. The early investigation on the topic found that VAT was not correlated significantly with CRF, only with the quantity of total abdominal adipose tissue and SAT [32].
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a resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor. your response to this should be .
A resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor therefore your response should be to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter and is denoted as option A.
Who is a Physician?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who has the required degree and is involved in the non-surgical treatment of individuals thereby ensuring that their health is restored.
Every individual has the right to choose his physician which is why an individual who wants a change should be assisted by contacting social worker or RN so that new arrangements can be made.
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The options are:
A. to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter
B. to gently tell the resident that the doctor has been assigned to him and he cannot change physicians without a legal procedure
C. to acknowledge the resident's concerns and suggest a different medical provider
D. to reassure the resident that his doctor is qualified and capable and encourage the resident to respect the doctor
an emergency department nurse understands that a 110-lb (50-kg) recent stroke victim will receive at least the minimum dose of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa). what minimum dose will the client receive?
A stroke is a cerebrovascular event brought on by a disruption in the blood supply. A patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
What is a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator?A recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa) is the medication used for a person suffering from a stroke. It is a protein and prevents the formation of blood clots in the circulatory or another organ system.
It is found on the endothelial cells of the blood vessels and converts the plasminogen to plasmin protein to break the blood particle accumulation. A 50 kg person suffering from a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) must be administered 45 mg of t-pa.
Therefore, the patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
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which measure would the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan for a multiparous client who gave birth 24 hours ago and is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy for cystitis?
Emptying the bladder in every 2 to 4 hours while awake would be a way that the nurse could anticipate the problem.
What is cystitis?
It's an infection or inflammation of the urinary tract, including the bladder, brought on by a kind of bacterium known as Escherichia coli (E. coli). Urge to urinate, blood in urine, and burning during urination are the results of this.
A technique for the nurse to foresee the issue would be to have the patient empty their bladder every two to four hours while they are awake.
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while assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. what is indicated by this finding? select all that apply.
The finding indicates that the client is an (2) older adult, has (4) history of smoking, and has a (5) chronic lung disease.
Anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, measured from front to back, is less than the width of the chest measured from side to side (transverse diameter) No obvious abnormalities, such as a barrel chest, kyphosis, or scoliosis, should be present on the chest.
A barrel-shaped chest is indicated by the 1:1 ratio of the anteroposterior diameter to the transverse diameter of the chest. This is a defining trait of an elderly smoker with chronic lung disease. The lumbar curvature increases with lordosis.
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Question correction:
While assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. What is indicated by this finding? Select all that apply.
Client has lordosisClient is an older adultClient has osteoporosisClient has a history of smokingClient has chronic lung diseasewhen planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (cp), what is important for the nurse to consider?
When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
What is cerebral palsy?Cerebral palsy is a group of conditions that are characterized by the fact that the individual is unable to maintain movement and balance of his/her own body.
In conclusion, When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP), it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
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the nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-year-old child about techniques to promote medicine adherence. what instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? select all that apply.
The instructions that nurse should include in the teaching includes choosing the proper dosage form, completing the prescribed dose. usage of calibrated spoons for measuring liquid formulations.
What is medicine adherence?
Medicine adherence often refers to whether patients continue to take a prescribed medication as well as whether they take their prescriptions as directed (for example, twice daily). Thus, adherence and persistence are the two key principles that describe medication adherence behavior.
The nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-year-old child about techniques to promote medicine adherence. The instructions which should be included by the nurse in the teaching are:
Choose the proper dosage form.Complete the prescribed dose.Use calibrated spoons for measuring liquid formulations.To know more about medicine adherence, go to URL
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soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. uworld
Soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. This is probably Celiac disease – malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis) and autoimmune inflammation.
What is Celiac disease?Symptoms of celiac disease include autoimmune inflammation and malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis).
It is a physiological reaction brought on by ingesting the gluten protein, which is found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Over time, the small intestine’s lining is damaged by the immune system’s reaction to consuming gluten, which can lead to health problems. In addition, it makes some nutrients more difficult to absorb (malabsorption). Demands a medical diagnosis.
As a rule, people experience diarrhea. Additional symptoms include osteoporosis, wind, bloating, and exhaustion. Low blood counts (anemia) are another. Many people don’t exhibit any symptoms.
People may experience:
Pain in the joints or the stomach.
Gastrointestinal: heartburn, indigestion, bloating, belching, diarrhoea, fatty stools, nausea, or vomiting
Body as a whole: fatigue, starvation, or bone loss
Among the problems with
• development is slow growth
• delayed puberty
• Cramping
• Itching
• lactose intolerance,
• Rashes
• weight loss are additional typical symptoms.
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a client with a history of right-sided heart failure lives in a long-term care facility. in the daily assessment, the nurse is required to record the level of this client’s peripheral edema. which would be the main area for examination?
The correct response is Feet and ankles.
What is the term for the ankles?The region where the foot and the leg converge is known as the ankle, the talocrural region, or the jumping bone (informally). Three joints make up the ankle the subtalar joint, the inferior tibiofibular joint, and the ankle joint proper, also known as the talocrural joint.
Where is the ankle bone located?The tibia, the larger and stronger of the two lower leg bones, makes up the inside of the ankle and is part of the real ankle joint, which is made up of three bones the outside portion of the ankle is made up of the fibula, a tiny bone in the lower leg.
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the nurse is monitoring a client with hypertension who is taking propranolol. which assessment finding indicates a potential adverse complication associated with this medication?
Blurred vision and confusion are the symptoms which indicates a potential adverse complication associated with the propranolol medication.
What is Hypertension?This is referred to a type of medical condition which is characterized by the blood pressure being too high as result of different factors such as obesity etc.
One of the medications which is used to treat it is referred to as propranolol and it helps to lower it. In cases where the patient experiences blurred vision and confusion then it means a potential adverse complication associated with it and is therefore referred to as the most appropriate choice.
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Which of the following is a part of contact precautions
Answer:
I don't see any options I can choose from. However, key components of contact precautions include patient placement, equipment management, patient transport, and visitor management.
Explanation:
the nurse is reviewing discharge instructions and follow up with a client. the client expresses concern over the cost of follow up
The nurse should tell them about the community resources and their numbers along with the client's discharge instructions.
What are discharge instructions?
A patient's care transition is said to become fragile after release from the hospital. The course of a patient's recovery is significantly impacted by its effective implementation. Effective communication of discharge instructions for patients is the most powerful weapon in a clinician's toolkit for promoting patient recovery.
At this moment, the nurse presupposes that the patient would be thrilled to go home and be extremely satisfied. The patient, however, is unprepared since she is unaware that she is leaving the hospital.
Because she does not know how she will go home, may not feel medically prepared to do so, and is unsure of how to take care of herself after leaving the safety of the hospital, she feels uneasy and uncomfortable.
Therefore, community plans for follow-up should be included in the discharge plan.
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you have been performing multiple-provider cpr and using an aed on an adult patient in cardiac arrest. the patient is now showing signs of return of spontaneous circulation (rosc). which action(s) would the team perform?
You have been performing multiple-provider CPR and using an AED on an adult patient in cardiac arrest and there are signs of return of spontaneous circulation which means the team should perform the following below:
1. Stop CPR.
2. Check for breathing and pulse.
3. Monitor the patient until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
What is CPR?This is referred to as cardiopulmonary resuscitation and is a lifesaving technique which is done to individuals who have cardiac arrest in which the heart stops beating.
It comprises of chest compression and artificial ventilation and is also used with AED. When this is done to individuals and they show some signs of return of spontaneous circulation, the CPR should be stopped immediately.
Checks for breathing and pulse should be done so as to ascertain the condition of the individual. Close monitoring should also be done before until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
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the healthcare practitioner is caring for a patient with a problem with the respiratory zone of the respiratory system. the healthcare practitioner understands which structure is part of the respiratory zone?
The network of organs and tissues that aids in breathing is known as the respiratory system. It consists of your blood vessels, lungs, and airways. The respiratory system also includes the muscles that propel your lungs. Together, these components help the body circulate oxygen and eliminate waste gases like carbon dioxide.
What is Respiratory System ?In both animals and plants, the respiratory system is a biological system made up of particular organs and structures that are employed for gas exchange. Depending on the size of the organism, its habitat of residence, and its evolutionary background, the anatomy and physiology that cause this vary widely.
The network of organs and tissues that aids in breathing is known as the respiratory system. It consists of your blood vessels, lungs, and airways. The respiratory system also includes the muscles that propel your lungs. Together, these components help the body circulate oxygen and eliminate waste gases like carbon dioxide.
What is Respiratory zone ?The respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli are all parts of the respiratory zone, which corresponds to the lung parenchyma. The conducting tract (airways) and the respiratory zone are the two functional and structural divisions of the lower respiratory system, which is a hierarchical system.
Air enters and exits the lungs through the conducting zone, which extends from the nose to the tiniest bronchioles. The respiratory bronchioles and alveoli are part of the respiratory zone, which also regulates the flow of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the circulation.
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the nurse is providing teaching to a client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. the nurse should explain to the client that which is true about this disorder?
The nurse should teach the client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder that the disorder is a mix of psychotic and mood disorder symptoms.
Schizoaffective disorder is a disorder consisting of varying symptoms like hallucinations, confusion, depression, etc. All the symptoms can either occur simultaneously or at different times. The treatment included is a combination of medications as well as therapy.
Mood disorder is the state of mind when the moods of a person are highly inconsistent. The person can become, angry or irritating at even the smallest thing. There are alterations of depressed and happy state. Bipolar disorder, Dysthymia, etc. are types of mood disorders.
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an increase in which blood which intervention would the nurse implement to relieve symptoms associated with a hypoglycemic reaction
The nurse would take the following steps to treat the symptoms of a hypoglycemia reaction:
Give 4 ounces (120 mL) of fruit juice
Explanation:
Simple carbohydrate-containing liquids immediately raise blood sugar levels because they are most easily absorbed. If the client is unconscious, a 50% dextrose solution may be administered; however, 5% dextrose does not provide enough carbs. Withholding the next insulin dose won't change the state of affairs. Protein and complex carbohydrates should be given after a simple carbohydrate since they raise blood sugar levels more slowly.
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a client in her third trimester reports to the nurse shortness of breath when sleeping. the nurse informs the client that this is normal and occurs because the growing fetus puts pressure on the diaphragm. which measure should the nurse suggest to help alleviate this problem?
A client in her third trimester reports to the nurse shortness of breath when sleeping. the nurse informs the client that this is normal and occurs because the growing fetus puts pressure on the diaphragm. The measure the nurse should suggest to alleviate this problem is to use extra pillows.
Fetus is the offspring of an organism that grows inside the womb of the female. It is the stage after the embryo is developed. The stage begins after 8 weeks of fertilization and ends at the time of parturition.
Diaphragm is the muscle that majorly helps in respiration and also supports the lungs from below in the thoracic cavity. Upon inhalation, the muscle contracts, while it relaxes during exhalation.
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Depressants and stimulants are categories of prescription drugs which are highly regulated because they have a strong potential for abuse and addiction. True or false?.
associated factors with uremic pruritus in chronic hemodialysis patients: a single-center observational study
A person whose kidneys are not functioning correctly undergoes hemodialysis, also known as Hemodialysis or simply dialysis, to filter their blood.
The median post-dialysis recovery time (DRT) for people receiving conventional HD is normally between two and four hours, with about 25% reporting a recovery time of more than six hours.
While patients taking a daily or nightly dose of HD report a noticeably quicker recovery time, 6,7.
What is Chronic hemodialysis ?Children with chronic renal failure are treated with hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis on an ongoing basis. Children who have consumed certain toxins (poisons) that need to be immediately eliminated from the body are also treated with acute hemodialysis.
Although patients should expect to remain on dialysis for 5 to 10 years on average, many have successfully maintained their health for 20 or even 30 years. Consult your medical staff for advice on how to look after your health while undergoing dialysis.
According to research by Montaseri et al., HD patients have overall 1-, 2-, 3-, and 5-year survival rates of 75%, 63%, 50%, and 23%, respectively. [8] Additionally, Beladi Mousavi et al. revealed that patient survival rates were 89.2%, 69.2%, and 46.8%, respectively, at 1, 3, and 5 years.
What is Uremic pruritus ?Up to half of all ESRD patients on dialysis develop the common and painful symptom known as uremic pruritus (UP)1,2. It is frequently defined as the recurrence of itch on a regular or almost daily basis without the presence of main dermatologic symptoms.
Uraemia-related disorders (especially those involving the metabolism of calcium, phosphorus, and parathyroid hormones), the buildup of uraemic toxins, systemic inflammation, cutaneous xerosis, and common co-morbidities such diabetes mellitus and viral hepatitis are possible triggers.
For severe uraemic pruritus that has not responded to traditional therapies, UVB phototherapy is the basis of treatment. Other therapies that have reportedly been effective for some patients include: modest doses of pregabalin with gabapentin (e.g. 100–300 mg gabapentin, three times weekly) Nalfurafine (opioid agonist)
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a client is diagnosed with an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. which action is a priority nursing intervention?
A client is diagnosed with an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. monitoring for signs of bleeding is the priority nursing intervention.
Tissue Plasminogen activator:It is a thrombolytic. symptomatic and systemic hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication.
Tissue Plasminogen activator is an enzyme which is useful to treat diseases which includes heart attack, strokes and blood clots ,etc.
It is one type of glyco-protien which produced mainly a vascular endothelial cells.
The side effects of tissue Plasminogen activator includes headache, bleeding from the wound, paralysis, difficulties in breathing and swallowing, etc.
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent . it is also referred to as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Alteplase converts plasminogen to the proteolytic enzyme plasmin, which lyses fibrin as well as fibrinogen.
What is blood clots?Blood clots are gel-like thick collections of blood that form in your veins or arteries when blood changes from liquid to partially solid.
A blood clot is also called a thrombus.
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to therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?
The nurse must identify personal feelings about child abusers first.
Intervention in child maltreatment includes, for instance, the investigation of child abuse reports by state child protection agencies, clinical treatment of physical and psychological injuries, family counseling, self-help services, the provision of goods and services like homemaker or respite care, legal action against the perpetrator, and removing the child or the offender from the home.
Some people consider these therapy efforts to be a sort of tertiary prevention since they frequently aim to avoid more instances of child abuse as well as to lessen the detrimental effects of those events on children and their families.
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Question correction:
To therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?
1 Develop a trusting relationship with the child.
2 Identify personal feelings about child abusers.
3 Recognize the emotional needs of the parents.
4 Gather information about the child's home environment
association of first primary cancer with risk of subsequent primary cancer among survivors of adult-onset cancers in the united states
The number of cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise, although there are few thorough studies on the likelihood that survivors of adult-onset cancers would get successive primary cancers (SPCs).
standardized incidence ratio (SIR) and standardized mortality ratio (SMR) of SPCs per 10,000 person-years in comparison to those anticipated in the general population.Several primary cancer types were significantly related with increased risk of acquiring and dying from an SPC among adult-onset cancer survivors in the United States when compared to the general population. Significant parts of the overall SPC incidence and death across all survivors were attributable to cancers linked to smoking or obesity, underscoring the significance of continuous surveillance and initiatives to stop new cancers among survivors.Cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise.
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which subjective question(s) by the nurse assist in identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes? (select all that apply.)
Which subjective question(s) by the nurse assist in identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes? (Select all that apply.)
SPICES• S—sleep disorders
• P—Problems with eating or feeding
• I—Incontinence
• C—Confusion
• E—Evidence of falls
• S—Skin breakdown
It is well known that society as a whole is living longer as a result of better healthcare and living conditions.
Although it is a blessing to be able to survive into old age, there are some problems that the elderly encounter that we should all be more aware of.
Until we begin to age or see a loved one struggle, we frequently don’t pay attention to the needs of our ageing population.
But we can do more as a society to raise their standard of living. This article discusses the most pressing problems that older people face today, as well as how we can support them and provide them the chance to age with dignity.
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Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Question 4 options: a) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases c) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care d) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
The criteria required for becoming licensed and employed as an EMT is: (b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
EMT is the abbreviation for Emergency Medical Technician. Their first priority is to transport the patient to the nearest hospital at the earliest while providing care on the way. They are also trained with certain skills and techniques to deal with emergency and life-threatening situations.
Communicable diseases are those that can easily spread from one person to another. This can happen by physical contact with the patient, contact with the patient's personal belongings, through infected surfaces or inhaling the infected droplets. Therefore, an EMT needs to be immunized against such diseases for his as well as the patient's safety.
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a nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 500 mg im to a client. the nurse reconstitutes a 500 mg vial of cefazolin powder to obtain a final concentration of cefazolin 330 mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should administer 1.51ml(rounding off 2 ml)
In many different areas of the body, cefazolin is used to treat bacterial infections. In order to avoid infections, this medication is also administered before to several types of surgery. Cefazolin is a member of the cephalosporin antibiotics drug class. It functions by eradicating germs or stopping their development.By attaching to penicillin-binding proteins, cefazolin prevents the creation of the cell wall, which halts the production of peptidoglycans. Bacterial proteins called penicillin-binding proteins aid in catalyzing the last steps of peptidoglycan production, which is necessary to preserve the cell wall.It is therapeutically efficient against infections brought on by gram-positive staphylococci and streptococci species.To know more about cephalosporin visit:
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a nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. what are the nurse's priority assessments of the child? select all that apply
A nurse in the pediatric clinic taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema prioritizes whether the child wears cotton clothing and tolerance to new food assessments of the child.
Children's eczema, a common allergy symptom, frequently connects to meals and clothing. Cotton clothing is a sign that the parents are aware of their child's allergy and are trying to lessen it. The ability to tolerate new foods indicates that a toddler has outgrown some food sensitivities. Eczema does not develop due to a lack of appetite. Eczema is a sign of allergies. However, it is not communicable.
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safiejko k, tarkowski r, koselak m, et al. robotic-assisted vs. standard laparoscopic surgery for rectal cancer resection: a systematic review and meta-analysis of 19,731 patients. cancers (basel). 2021;14(1):180.
In patients receiving curative surgery for rectal cancer, robotic-assisted surgery is anticipated to provide benefits over the traditional laparoscopic technique.
What is robotic-assisted surgery?
Robotic surgery, also known as robot-assisted surgery, enables medical professionals to carry out a variety of intricate treatments with greater accuracy, adaptability, and control than is feasible with traditional methods. Robotic surgery is frequently related to minimally invasive surgery, which involves operations done through small incisions.
It may also be employed sometimes during various types of open surgery. Compared to traditional approaches, surgeons who utilize the robotic system report that it improves precision, flexibility, and control throughout the surgery and gives them a better view of the spot.
Surgeons may carry out delicate and intricate treatments using robotic surgery that could be challenging or impossible with traditional techniques.
Therefore, Patients receiving curative surgery for rectal cancer are predicted to benefit more from robotic-assisted surgery than from the traditional laparoscopic technique.
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what are some questions the nurse should ask herself before accepting this assignment? include your rationale.
Do you possess the ability to care for patients before the nurse accepts you? Do you have experience with the assigned patient types? Do you have the necessary cross-training to care for these patients if this is a "float assignment"? Exists a "buddy system" among employees who are familiar with the unit? Such inquiries ought to be made.
Nurses should actively promote patient safety, which requires them to be skilled in patient-centered care delivery and other issues that might degrade the standard and effectiveness of patient care (Browne et al., 2015).
In the ATI Case Study, the nurse should think about two key issues that will help advance the patient's general well-being. What are the key tasks and expectations for the assignment? should be the first question you ask. The purpose of this inquiry is to assist her better understanding the patient's requirements and to provide a baseline for assessing her capacity to deliver safe, high-quality treatment that is patient-centered. "Do I have the skill set to offer care and safety for this patient?" is the second query. The purpose of this inquiry is to enable the nurse to make an educated decision on whether to accept or reject the assignment.
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the pediatric emergency room nurse recognizes that parents are often anxious about the treatment and prognosis of their child. which supportive statements would the nurse use when communicating with these parents? select all that apply.
Supportive statements such as "We understand that you are anxious.", "We will give frequent updates.", "We really want to provide your child with the best care possible.", and "If you have any concerns, please let us know." the nurse should use when communicating with those parents.
The medical staff members that spend the most time with patients and their families while they are in the hospital are nurses. Nurses are in charge of delivering care; doctors may treat. They give crucial emotional assistance in addition to medical care.
Nurses serve as hand-holders, cheerleaders, and fitness trainers. They are responsible for providing comfort to patients and assisting them through emotional difficulties. From the very first day to the very last, day and night, they are with their patients.
By empathizing with suffering patients, reassuring anxious patients, and inspiring hope in all of them, they provide emotional support for their patients.
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Question correction:
The pediatric emergency room nurse recognizes that parents are often anxious about the treatment and prognosis of their child. Which supportive statements would the nurse use when communicating with these parents? Select all that apply.
1. "We deal with situations like this all the time."
2. "We understand that you are anxious."
3. "We will give frequent updates."
4. "We really want to provide your child with the best care possible."
5. "If you have any concerns, please let us know."
a multilevel analysis of u.s. hospital patient safety culture relationships with perceptions of voluntary event reporting
Multilevel analysis of U.S hospital patient safety culture relationships with perceptions of voluntary event reporting
Explanation:
Events involving patient safety present chances to enhance health care, but sadly, these incidents frequently go unreported. Even though electronic reporting systems might assist decrease some reporting barriers, hospitals may be able to raise reporting rates and boost patient safety by understanding organizational and cultural factors that affect reporting frequency.
Methods: Used gathered information from The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality Hospital Survey of Patient Safety Culture as predictors and outcome factors in a cross-sectional survey study. The data were evaluated using multilevel modeling approaches, and the dataset included medical staff working in American hospitals.
Results: The analysis included information from 967 hospitals, 7816 work areas/units, and 223,412 people. The dimension feedback concerning error accounted for the most distinctive predicted variance in the outcome frequency of events recorded, whether near miss, no harm, or potential for harm safety events were being studied.
More culture dimensions became strongly connected with voluntary reporting as the safety event's perceived severity rose.
Conclusions: Study proposes giving priority to enhancing event feedback mechanisms and communicating event-related changes in order to maximize the possibility that a patient safety event will be voluntarily reported. It might be more effective to concentrate efforts on these areas than on other types of culture reform.
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a nurse performs an apgar assessment on a newborn at 1 minute with a score of 7 and at 5 minutes with a score of 10. what action should the nurse take?
A nurse performs an Apgar assessment on a newborn at 1 minute with a score of 7 and at 5 minutes with a score of 10.
What is an Apgar score?An Apgar score is measured at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. Scoring may continue at 5-minute intervals if the baby is in danger and needs CPR. An Apgar score is assigned to each newborn. The APGAR score can be completed by a nurse or labor support person. The Apgar score makes it feasible to assess the newborn’s transition to extrauterine life quickly. Waiting longer than 15 minutes between assessments would be unreasonable.
How is the Exam Conducted?The Apgar test is carried out by a doctor, midwife, or nurse. The physician examines the infants:
• Breathing effort
• The heartbeat
• Muscle tone Reflexes
• Skin color
A score of 0, 1, or 2 is assigned to each category depending on the observed circumstance.
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